Nokea
During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
- A. Sternal notch
- B. Nipple line
- C. Xiphoid process
- D. Fifth intercostal space
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements.
Rationale:
A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals.
C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose.
D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.
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During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension due to vasodilation and sympathetic blockade, resulting in decreased blood pressure. This is a common complication that nurses should monitor for and manage promptly. Vomiting (A) is not a direct complication of epidural anesthesia. Tachycardia (B) is not typically associated with epidural anesthesia but may indicate other issues. Respiratory depression (C) is more commonly seen with opioids and not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. It's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore.
- B. In most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.
- C. There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client.
- D. It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. This symptom typically improves by the end of the first trimester, as the uterus rises and reduces pressure on the bladder. Therefore, telling the client that it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of pregnancy is accurate.
Choice A is incorrect because urinary frequency should not be ignored as it could be a sign of a urinary tract infection or other underlying issue.
Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately suggests that urinary frequency only lasts until the 12th week and implies that poor bladder tone is the sole factor influencing this symptom.
Choice C is incorrect because while it is true that individual experiences can vary, there are general patterns and timelines for common pregnancy symptoms like urinary frequency.
A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
- A. It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds.
- B. The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.
- C. A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you.
- D. A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (15 to 25 pounds) because this recommendation aligns with the guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy for a client with a BMI of 26.5. The Institute of Medicine recommends this weight gain range for individuals in the overweight category. It is important to strike a balance between gaining enough weight to support the health of the fetus and not gaining excess weight that may lead to complications.
Choice A (11 to 20 pounds) may not provide enough weight gain for optimal pregnancy outcomes, while choice C (25 to 35 pounds) may lead to excessive weight gain. Choice D (1 pound per week) is too specific and does not account for individual variations in weight gain patterns during pregnancy. It is crucial to tailor weight gain recommendations based on the client's BMI to ensure a healthy pregnancy.
A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
- B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
- C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
- D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms. Preterm infants have underdeveloped regulatory systems, making them vulnerable to heat loss or overheating. Maintaining a neutral thermal environment in an incubator helps prevent fluctuations in body temperature.
Choice A is incorrect because surface area alone does not explain the need for a neutral thermal environment. Choice B is incorrect as brown fat actually helps generate heat in newborns. Choice D is incorrect as drying sweat is not the primary reason for using an incubator in preterm newborns.
A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
- A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
- B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
- C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
- D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the indirect Coombs test is used to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In this scenario, the mother is Rh-negative, so if she has been sensitized to Rh-positive blood during childbirth, her immune system may produce antibodies that could potentially harm future Rh-positive pregnancies. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies early on so appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: This test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe complication of jaundice, which may result from hemolytic disease of the newborn if untreated.
B: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. It specifically looks for Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
D: The test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. It focuses on detecting antibodies in