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During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?
- A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
- B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
- C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
- D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.
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The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Wheezing
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Cough with sputum production
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.
A nurse is preparing an infusion for a client who was hospitalized with deep-vein thrombosis. The orders read: 25,000 units of heparin in 250 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to infuse at 800 units/hr. At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump?
- A. 8 mL/hr
- B. 10 mL/hr
- C. 12 mL/hr
- D. 15 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, use the formula: (Desired units/hr / Total units) Volume. In this case, it would be (800 units/hr / 25,000 units) 250 mL = 8 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump at 8 mL/hr. Choice B, 10 mL/hr, is incorrect because it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 15 mL/hr respectively, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided data.
Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?
- A. To reduce strain on the incision
- B. To promote drainage of the wound
- C. To provide stimulation for the client
- D. To reduce edema at the operative site
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.
A 3-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease attends a daycare center. Which of the following would be an appropriate snack?
- A. Cheese crackers
- B. Peanut butter sandwich
- C. Potato chips
- D. Vanilla cookies
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is potato chips. As a child with celiac disease needs to avoid gluten, potato chips are a suitable snack choice as they are typically gluten-free. Cheese crackers (Choice A) and vanilla cookies (Choice D) contain gluten, which should be avoided by individuals with celiac disease. While peanut butter sandwiches (Choice B) could be gluten-free depending on the bread used, it is not the best choice as cross-contamination is a concern in shared environments like daycare centers.