Nokea
During the physical assessment, the nurse recalls that the areas most frequently affected by multiple sclerosis are the:
- A. Lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles
- B. Pons medulla and cerebral peduncles
- C. Optic nerve and chiasm
- D. Above areas
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer):
1. Multiple sclerosis (MS) commonly affects the optic nerve and chiasm.
2. MS is characterized by demyelination of nerves, leading to visual disturbances.
3. Optic nerve involvement results in vision problems, such as blurred vision.
4. Chiasm involvement can cause visual field deficits and color perception changes.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Lateral, 3rd, and 4th ventricles - Incorrect. MS primarily affects the central nervous system, not ventricles.
B: Pons, medulla, and cerebral peduncles - Incorrect. While these areas are part of the brainstem, they are not commonly affected in MS.
D: Above areas - Incorrect. This choice is vague and does not specify any specific areas affected by MS.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following medications should then nurse explain may cause headache as a side effect?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Clonidine (Catapres)
- C. Atenolol ((Tenormin)
- D. Adalat (Procardia)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonidine (Catapres). Clonidine is known to cause headache as a side effect due to its mechanism of action affecting blood pressure regulation in the brain. Furosemide (A) is a diuretic that typically causes electrolyte imbalances, not headaches. Atenolol (C) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, which can cause fatigue but not typically headaches. Adalat (D) is a calcium channel blocker that usually causes peripheral edema, not headaches.
Mr. RR is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of brain tumor. Mr. RR’s doctor is very much concerned about the possibility of increased intracranial pressure. The following is the most reliable index of cerebral state:
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Unilateral papillary dilatation
- C. Increased systolic BP
- D. Decreased pulse pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Level of consciousness is the most reliable index of cerebral state because it directly reflects the functioning of the brain. Changes in consciousness can indicate alterations in cerebral perfusion and potential increases in intracranial pressure.
Step 2: Unilateral papillary dilatation may suggest an increase in intracranial pressure, but it is not as reliable as level of consciousness in assessing overall cerebral state.
Step 3: Increased systolic blood pressure can occur due to various reasons and may not specifically indicate changes in intracranial pressure.
Step 4: Decreased pulse pressure may be related to factors such as hypovolemia or cardiac conditions, but it is not a direct indicator of cerebral state or intracranial pressure.
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?
- A. Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs
- B. Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells
- C. Paroxysms or shortness of breath
- D. Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants.
A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma.
B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma.
D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma.
In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.
A client with HIV has been prescribed anti viral medications. What instructions related to administration of medications should the nurse give such a client?
- A. Comply with the timing of antiviral medication around meals
- B. Avoid exposure to harsh sunlight for about 2hrs after taking the medication
- C. Have the medications with plenty of fruit juice
- D. Have an increased dose of the medications if the symptoms worsen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Timing: Antiviral medications should be taken as prescribed to maintain consistent drug levels in the body.
2. Around meals: Taking medications with or without food can affect absorption, so timing around meals helps with consistency.
3. Compliance: Following the timing instructions increases medication effectiveness and reduces the risk of drug resistance.
Other Choices:
B) Avoiding harsh sunlight: Not directly related to medication administration; may be a precaution for other reasons.
C) Having medications with fruit juice: This is not a standard instruction for antiviral medications; may not be suitable for all medications.
D) Increasing dose for worsening symptoms: This is dangerous and should only be done under healthcare provider supervision; self-adjusting medication doses can be harmful.
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
- A. Assessment
- B. Diagnosis
- C. Implementation
- D. Evaluation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In this scenario, the nurse failed to assess the patient's condition promptly after being informed of feeling dizzy and light-headed. Assessment involves collecting data to identify actual or potential health problems. By not promptly assessing the patient's worsening condition, the nurse missed an essential step in the nursing process.
Choice B: Diagnosis comes after assessment and involves identifying the patient's health problems based on collected data. Choice C: Implementation is the phase where the nurse carries out the plan of care. Choice D: Evaluation occurs after implementation to determine if the interventions were effective.