During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements.
Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur.
Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage.
Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
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Which nonpharmacological technique involves the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms?
- A. Meditation
- B. Visualization
- C. Biofeedback
- D. Chiropractic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biofeedback. Biofeedback is a nonpharmacological technique that uses electronic monitoring equipment to provide real-time data on physiological processes such as heart rate, muscle tension, and skin temperature. Through this feedback, patients learn to control and regulate these bodily functions voluntarily.
Choice A, Meditation, involves focusing the mind and reducing stress through techniques like mindfulness or deep breathing, but it does not specifically rely on electronic monitoring equipment. Choice B, Visualization, is a technique where individuals imagine peaceful scenes to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety, and it also does not involve electronic monitoring. Choice D, Chiropractic, is a healthcare profession that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders through manual adjustments and manipulation, which is unrelated to the use of electronic monitoring equipment for controlling bodily functions.
A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
- B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
- C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
- D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.
What is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager?
- A. Direct patient care
- B. Financial oversight
- C. Ignoring staff concerns
- D. Minimizing staff training
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Financial oversight is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager. Healthcare managers are responsible for managing the financial aspects of healthcare facilities, including budgeting, financial planning, and ensuring financial sustainability. Direct patient care (choice A) is typically the responsibility of healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, not managers. Ignoring staff concerns (choice C) is counterproductive and goes against effective management practices. Minimizing staff training (choice D) is also not a responsibility of a healthcare manager; on the contrary, they should ensure adequate training and development opportunities for their staff to improve patient care and overall performance.
Your patient has been diagnosed with giant cell arthritis. What medication will this patient most likely be given?
- A. High doses of aspirin
- B. High doses of prednisone
- C. Methotrexate
- D. Albuterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High doses of prednisone are commonly prescribed for giant cell arthritis to reduce inflammation. Aspirin is not typically used for this condition. Methotrexate is more commonly used for conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, not giant cell arthritis. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for respiratory conditions, not for giant cell arthritis.
Which of the following is expected to be most likely true in the near future?
- A. Quality improvement projects will decline due to cost-cutting measures.
- B. Alternative and complementary approaches will gain acceptance in medical practice.
- C. Care will primarily shift away from the hospital setting.
- D. Increased focus on care transitions will involve nursing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the near future, there will be an increased focus on care transitions involving nursing. This means that nurses will play a crucial role in preparing patients for transitions between different care settings, ensuring continuity and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect because quality improvement projects are essential and are not expected to decline. Choice B is incorrect as alternative and complementary approaches are increasingly being integrated into medical practice. Choice C is incorrect as there is a growing trend towards providing care in community settings and homes, moving away from primarily hospital-based care.
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