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Early this morning a client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the nurse assesses the client, who has now nausea, a temperature of 105F (40.5C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Thyroid crisis
- D. Tetany
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid crisis. These signs suggest thyroid storm, a life-threatening complication of thyroid surgery. The high fever, tachycardia, and restlessness are classic symptoms. Thyroid crisis can lead to severe complications if not managed promptly.
A: Diabetic ketoacidosis typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fruity breath odor.
B: Hypoglycemia would present with symptoms like diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion.
D: Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia and presents with muscle cramps, spasms, and numbness.
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The physician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.”
- B. “Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.”
- C. “You won’t need to check you blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.”
- D. “Take glipizide after a metal to prevent heartburn.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” This instruction is correct because glipizide is an oral antidiabetic agent that works best when taken before meals to help control blood glucose levels. Taking it before meals allows the medication to coincide with the body's natural insulin response to food intake, thereby improving its effectiveness.
Choice B is incorrect because glipizide does not typically cause low serum sodium levels, so there is no need for monthly sodium level checks. Choice C is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue monitoring their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to ensure the medication is working effectively. Choice D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal will not optimize its effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels.
Which of the following data regarding a client with a diagnosis of colon cancer are subjective?
- A. The client’s chemotherapy causes him nausea and loss of appetite.
- B. The client became teary when his daughter from out of state came to the bedside.
- C. The client’s ileostomy put out 125 mL of effluent in the past four hours.
- D. The patient is unwilling to manipulate or empty his ostomy bag.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because subjective data refers to information reported by the client, such as their symptoms or feelings. In this case, the client experiencing nausea and loss of appetite due to chemotherapy is subjective as it is based on the client's personal experience and perception.
Choice B is incorrect because the client becoming teary is an observable behavior, making it an objective data point. Choice C is incorrect as the amount of effluent from the ileostomy is a measurable and quantifiable data, making it objective. Choice D is also incorrect as the patient's unwillingness to manipulate or empty his ostomy bag is an observable behavior, not based on the client's report.
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
- A. Shrimp and tomatoes
- B. Cheese and bananas
- C. Lobster and squash
- D. Lamb and peaches
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Lamb and peaches) because lamb is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Peaches are high in vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Shrimp and tomatoes (A) have some iron but are not as rich in iron as lamb. Cheese and bananas (B) are not significant sources of iron. Lobster and squash (C) also do not provide as much iron as lamb. Overall, the combination of heme iron from lamb and vitamin C from peaches makes them the most suitable choices for an anemic client requiring iron therapy.
A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?
- A. Procainamide (Pronestyl)
- B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Azathioprine (Imuran)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.
Why are older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases susceptible to thrombophlebitis?
- A. Choose all that apply
- B. IV drugs and chemicals
- C. Impaired mobility
- D. Compromised circulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV drugs and chemicals. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation, commonly caused by irritants like IV drugs. Impaired mobility (C) and compromised circulation (D) are risk factors for thrombophlebitis, but not specific to older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases. A is incorrect as not all choices apply in this scenario.