Nokea
The nurse continues to care for the client.
History and Physical
Day 1, 0900:
A 52-year-old client brought to emergency department by adult child. Client is alert and oriented
to person and time but does not know where they are. No history of substance use according to
client's adult child. Client exhibits constant movements and poor concentration. Hair and
clothing are unclean. Appears to be listening to unseen others. Skin turgor poor.
Fill in the blanks with one condition and one client finding.The client is most likely experiencing---------- as evidenced by the client's--------
- A. Mania
- B. Delirium
- C. Catatonia
- D. Magical thinking
- E. Euphoric mood
- F. Hypervigilance
- G. Panic disorder
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A, E. Mania is characterized by elevated mood, increased energy levels, and impulsivity. The client is most likely experiencing mania as evidenced by euphoric mood. Euphoric mood is a key symptom of mania, reflecting a heightened sense of well-being and happiness. Therefore, the combination of mania and euphoric mood is indicative of a manic episode. Choices B, C, D, F, and G are incorrect as they do not align with the symptoms and presentation of mania. Delirium is characterized by confusion and disorientation, not euphoric mood. Catatonia involves motor disturbances, not euphoric mood. Magical thinking refers to unrealistic beliefs, not necessarily elevated mood. Hypervigilance is associated with anxiety disorders, not mania. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, not euphoric mood.
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A nurse is providing an in service about client evacuation during the fracture.
Which of the following clients should the nurse instruct the staff to evacuate first?
- A. A client who uses a wheelchair and is confused
- B. A client who is bedridden and wears a hearing aid
- C. A client who is ambulatory and receiving oxygen
- D. A client who has a fracture and is in balance suspension traction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A client who is ambulatory and receiving oxygen. This client should be evacuated first because they are at risk for oxygen-related complications during an emergency. Oxygen supports combustion, increasing the risk of fire. The priority is to remove this client from the area to prevent harm. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Although the client is confused and uses a wheelchair, they are not at immediate risk of harm related to their condition. B: The client who is bedridden and wears a hearing aid is also not at immediate risk of harm. D: The client with a fracture in balance suspension traction can be safely evacuated with assistance and does not have an immediate life-threatening condition.
A nurse is reporting a client's laboratory test to the provider to obtain a prescription for warfarin.
Which laboratory test should the nurse report?
- A. INR
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
- E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The nurse should report the INR (International Normalized Ratio) test because it specifically measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. A high INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a low INR indicates a higher risk of clotting. Reporting the INR can help healthcare providers adjust medication dosage to maintain optimal therapeutic levels.
Incorrect choices:
B: Prothrombin time (PT) is related to INR but is less specific for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count assesses the number of platelets, not the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy.
E: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess blood volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, not anticoagulant therapy.
A nurse in a clinic is planning care for a child who has ADHD and is taking atomoxetine
Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. kidney function tests
- C. hemoglobin and hematocrit
- D. serum sodium and potassium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Monitoring liver function is crucial as it assesses the health of the liver, detecting any abnormalities or diseases. Liver function tests include assessing levels of enzymes, proteins, and bilirubin. Abnormal results can indicate liver damage or dysfunction. Monitoring kidney function (B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (C) are essential for assessing blood health but not specific to liver function. Serum sodium and potassium (D) are more related to electrolyte balance than liver function.
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant. Nurses'
Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Vital Signs Day
1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98,4° F) Heart
rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min BP
162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Diagnostic Results Day 1,
1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear) Color
yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03) Leukocyte esterase
negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative) Ketones
negative (negative) Crystals negative
(negative) Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative) WBC 5 (0
t0 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2) RBC
casts none (none)
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.
- A. Urine protein
- B. Fetal activity
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urine ketones
- E. Respiratory rate
- F. Report of headache
- G. Gravida/parity
Correct Answer: A,C,F,G
Rationale: The correct answers (A, C, F, G) indicate potential prenatal complications. Urine protein (A) suggests preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure (C) and proteinuria. Headaches (F) can also be a sign of preeclampsia. Gravida/parity (G) provides important obstetric history, identifying high-risk pregnancies. Fetal activity (B) and respiratory rate (E) are not specific to prenatal complications. Urine ketones (D) may indicate dehydration but not necessarily a prenatal complication.
A nurse is planning care for a group of clients and is working with one licensed practical nurse (LPN) and one assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to manage her time effectively?
- A. Delegate tasks to the AP
- B. Determine goals of the day
- C. Schedule daily activities.
- D. Develop an hourly time frame for tasks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Determine goals of the day. This is the first step as it helps prioritize tasks and allocate time efficiently. By setting clear goals, the nurse can focus on essential activities and delegate tasks accordingly. Option A is incorrect because delegating tasks to the AP should come after determining goals to ensure tasks align with priorities. Options C and D are also incorrect as scheduling daily activities and developing an hourly time frame should be based on established goals.