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Five (5) major factors predisposed to uterine rupture:
- A. Previous C-section, uterine scars, fetal macrosomia, trauma, prolonged labor
- B. Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia
- C. Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A):
1. Previous C-section and uterine scars weaken the uterine wall.
2. Fetal macrosomia (large baby) increases pressure on the uterus.
3. Trauma can cause direct injury to the uterus.
4. Prolonged labor can lead to uterine overdistension and fatigue, increasing rupture risk.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia are not direct factors for uterine rupture.
C: Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care can contribute to complications but not primary causes of uterine rupture.
D: Not all factors in choices B and C are predisposing factors for uterine rupture, making this choice incorrect.
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Ms. Kweke’s possible complications (obstructed labour):
- A. Hemorrhage, uterine rupture
- B. Fetal distress, infection
- C. Preterm birth, asphyxia
- D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Obstructed labor can lead to prolonged pressure on the uterus, causing hemorrhage and uterine rupture (A).
2. Prolonged labor can result in fetal distress due to reduced oxygen supply and potential infection (B).
3. Therefore, both complications mentioned in A and B can occur in obstructed labor.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Preterm birth and asphyxia are not directly related to obstructed labor.
B: Incorrect - Only fetal distress and infection are commonly associated with obstructed labor.
C: Incorrect - Both A and B are possible complications of obstructed labor, making D the correct choice.
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
- A. Feminizing adrenal tumors are almost always carcinomas
- B. Feminizing adrenal tumors are the most common type of adrenal tumor
- C. Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex
- D. Virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children NURS 6560N Final Exam Answers 2024 NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders.
A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children.
In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.
Arched back and tightly clenched teeth are among the features of which stage of eclampsia:
- A. Clonic
- B. Tonic
- C. Premonitory
- D. Coma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tonic. During the tonic stage of eclampsia, the muscles go into a prolonged contraction leading to an arched back and tightly clenched teeth. This is due to sustained muscle rigidity. In contrast, the clonic stage involves rhythmic muscle contractions and relaxations, not sustained rigidity. The premonitory stage is characterized by warning signs like headaches and visual disturbances, not specific physical postures. Coma is a severe stage of unconsciousness, not associated with specific physical postures or muscle rigidity seen in the tonic stage of eclampsia.
Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects
- A. Irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Inflammatory bowel disease
- C. Diverticulitis
- D. Appendicitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritable bowel syndrome. Mrs. Maroldo's history of recurrent left lower quadrant pain that usually resolves with antibiotics suggests a chronic condition rather than an acute one like diverticulitis, appendicitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. Her lack of nausea, vomiting, and severe symptoms, along with the presence of diarrhea and no bowel movements, align more with irritable bowel syndrome. Additionally, her vital signs are not significantly elevated, ruling out acute conditions like appendicitis. Discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant is common in irritable bowel syndrome due to visceral hypersensitivity. Therefore, based on her chronic symptoms, lack of severe signs, and typical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is irritable bowel syndrome.
The term used to describe the situation whereby there is the presence of more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor is
- A. Unstable lie
- B. Fetal malpresentation
- C. Fetal malposition
- D. Compound presentation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.