Nokea
Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
- A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
- B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
- C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
- D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
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You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
- A. Palliative
- B. Reconstructive
- C. Salvage
- D. Prophylactic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.
What is a characteristic of normal cells?
- A. They have no functions
- B. They have a larger nucleus
- C. They undergo apoptosis
- D. They have a dark-colored nucleus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that normal cells undergo apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death process essential for maintaining tissue homeostasis. Choice A is incorrect as normal cells do have specific functions. Choice B is incorrect as the size of the nucleus may vary but is not a defining characteristic of normal cells. Choice D is incorrect as the color of the nucleus is not a standard characteristic of normal cells.
A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?
- A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.
- B. Palliative care is only provided when curative treatment is no longer an option.
- C. Palliative care includes interventions to prolong life at all costs.
- D. Palliative care provides support for both the client and their family.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.
A patient with multiple myeloma has developed hypercalcemia. What symptoms should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. In patients with multiple myeloma who have developed hypercalcemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial. Hypercalcemia can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Choice A, increased heart rate, is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or anxiety rather than hypercalcemia. Choice B, decreased urine output, is commonly seen in conditions leading to acute kidney injury rather than hypercalcemia. Choice D, hypertension, is not a typical symptom of hypercalcemia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like uncontrolled high blood pressure.
A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy. Which side effect is the nurse most concerned about?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Alopecia
- C. Fatigue
- D. Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peripheral neuropathy. This can be a serious and dose-limiting side effect of chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. Peripheral neuropathy can cause tingling, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet due to nerve damage. While nausea and vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy, they are not typically as concerning or dose-limiting as peripheral neuropathy in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment.