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Following the change of shift report, when can or should the nurse's plan be altered or modified during the shift?
- A. halfway through the shift
- B. at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off
- C. when needs change
- D. after the top-priority tasks have been completed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'when needs change.' It is crucial for the nurse to remain adaptable and adjust the plan promptly when the patient's needs or condition change. Choice A, 'halfway through the shift,' may not align with the timing of when needs actually change, making it less optimal for plan modifications. Choice B, 'at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off,' is too late to address evolving needs effectively. Choice D, 'after the top-priority tasks have been completed,' limits the nurse's ability to respond promptly to changing priorities, as needs may shift before all top-priority tasks are finished.
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If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?
- A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
- B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
- C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
- D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.
Diagnostic genetic counseling, for procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, allows clients to make all of the following choices except:
- A. terminating the pregnancy.
- B. preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
- C. accessing support services before the birth.
- D. completing the grieving process before the birth.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diagnostic genetic counseling provides clients with important information to make informed decisions regarding their pregnancy. Clients can choose to terminate the pregnancy, prepare for the birth of a child with special needs, and access support services before the birth based on the genetic testing results. However, completing the grieving process before the birth is not a typical choice during genetic counseling. The grieving process, if needed, may extend beyond the prenatal period, especially if the findings are concerning or indicate potential issues. Therefore, completing the grieving process before the birth is the exception among the provided options.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.
The LPN on shift notices a client coming into the clinic with bruises on his arm. The client seems very afraid and doesn't speak much, which concerns the nurse because these are signs of physical abuse. The nurse should ____.
- A. use therapeutic communication to talk to the client and offer support while reporting the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
- B. report the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
- C. ignore the bruises, as this is not why the client is being treated and is not appropriate for the nurse to address
- D. report the suspected abuse to another nurse and collaborate on how to handle it
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In cases of suspected abuse, healthcare providers have a legal and ethical obligation to report such incidents to the relevant authorities. This not only ensures the safety and well-being of the client but also helps in preventing further harm. Option A is incorrect as attempting to gather evidence of abuse may interfere with the official investigation and is not the nurse's role. Offering support is crucial, but the priority is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities. Option C is incorrect as ignoring signs of abuse goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to protect their clients. Option D is incorrect as reporting suspected abuse to other nurses without involving the appropriate authorities may delay necessary actions and intervention.
A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?
- A. Smiling
- B. Clenching the teeth
- C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
- D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.