Nokea
For a patient receiving furosemide, the nurse evaluates the medication as being effective if which of the following effects occurs?
- A. Urine output increased
- B. Heart rate increased
- C. Serum potassium decreased
- D. Pulse pressure increased
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output increased. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, thus helping to reduce fluid volume in the body. This effect is crucial in managing conditions like heart failure and edema. Increased urine output indicates that the medication is working as intended.
Choice B: Heart rate increased is incorrect as furosemide does not directly affect heart rate.
Choice C: Serum potassium decreased is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, but this is not the primary indicator of its effectiveness.
Choice D: Pulse pressure increased is incorrect as furosemide does not typically impact pulse pressure.
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The primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema is:
- A. Decreased left ventricular pumping
- B. Increased left atrial contractility
- C. Decreased right ventricular elasticity
- D. Increased right atrial pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Pulmonary edema is caused by fluid accumulation in the lungs due to increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature.
Step 2: Decreased left ventricular pumping leads to congestive heart failure, causing increased pressure in pulmonary circulation.
Step 3: This increased pressure forces fluid from the capillaries into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema.
Step 4: Increased left atrial contractility (B) would not directly lead to pulmonary edema.
Step 5: Decreased right ventricular elasticity (C) and increased right atrial pressure (D) are not directly related to the pathophysiology of pulmonary edema.
Summary: The correct answer is A because decreased left ventricular pumping directly contributes to the increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation that leads to pulmonary edema. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema.
Mrs. Tan is scheduled to undergo percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). Which of the following is the priority goal for her immediately after the procedure?
- A. prevent fluid volume deficit
- B. maintain blood pressure control
- C. decrease myocardial contractility
- D. minimize dyspnea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: maintain blood pressure control. After PTCA, the priority goal is to ensure stable hemodynamics. Maintaining blood pressure control is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because preventing fluid volume deficit, decreasing myocardial contractility, and minimizing dyspnea are not immediate priorities post-PTCA. Oxygenation and hemodynamic stability take precedence over these concerns.
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, NO, MO. What does this classification mean?
- A. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis
- B. Carcinoma is situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis
- C. Can’t assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis
- D. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed.
Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved.
Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis.
Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor.
C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option.
D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.
A nurse who is caring for an unresponsive client formulates the nursing diagnosis, 'Risk for Aspiration related to reduced level of consciousness.' The nurse documents this nursing diagnosis as correct based on the understanding that which of the following is a characteristic of this type of diagnosis?
- A. Is written as a two-part statement
- B. Describes human response to a health problem
- C. Describes potential for enhancement to a higher state
- D. Made when not enough evidence supports the problem
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Is written as a two-part statement. This is because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (risk for aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). By using a two-part statement, the nurse clearly identifies the client's current health problem and the underlying reason for it. This format helps in developing appropriate nursing interventions to address the issue.
Choice B is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis does not describe the client's response to a health problem; it identifies the potential risk for aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as the diagnosis does not focus on enhancement but rather on potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis is based on the available evidence of the client's reduced level of consciousness, which poses a risk for aspiration.
Which gauge IV cannula should the nurse choose when preparing to initiate a blood transfusion?
- A. 18
- B. 24
- C. 22
- D. 28
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct choice is A: 18 gauge IV cannula for blood transfusion. Larger gauge allows for faster flow rate, crucial for transfusions to prevent clotting. 24, 22, and 28 gauge cannulas are too small for adequate blood flow, leading to potential complications like hemolysis or slowed infusion.