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For a patient who is experiencing side effects of radiation therapy, which task would be the most appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant?
- A. Assist the patient to identify patterns of fatigue
- B. Recommend participation in a walking program
- C. Report the amount and type of food consumed from the tray
- D. Check the skin for redness and irritation after the treatment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Radiation side effects like fatigue and anorexia benefit from team care. Reporting food consumed from the tray suits nursing assistants observing and relaying intake data supports nutrition monitoring without requiring clinical judgment. Identifying fatigue patterns demands analysis, a nurse's role to adjust care plans. Recommending exercise exceeds assistants' scope physicians or RNs initiate such advice. Checking skin for redness post-treatment needs assessment skills to detect burns or infection, RN territory. Food reporting leverages assistants' observational role, aiding nurses in tracking radiation's impact on appetite, ensuring basic needs are flagged efficiently in a collaborative approach.
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In Europe and the USA, drugs licensed for use in intrathecal drug delivery systems include:
- A. Diamorphine.
- B. Methadone.
- C. Morphine.
- D. Ziconotide.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intrathecal drug delivery systems (IDDS) use specific licensed drugs in Europe and the USA. Morphine is widely approved for its efficacy in cancer and chronic pain, binding spinal opioid receptors with a strong evidence base. Ziconotide, a non-opioid, is also licensed, targeting calcium channels for refractory cases. Diamorphine (heroin) isn't licensed intrathecally; it's used epidurally or systemically in some regions (e.g., UK palliative care) but lacks IDDS approval. Methadone's long half-life and oral efficacy preclude intrathecal use; it's not licensed. Ketamine has experimental use but no formal approval. Morphine's prominence stems from its pharmacokinetic suitability high potency and spinal receptor affinity making it a cornerstone of IDDS therapy alongside ziconotide.
A nurse is caring for a client who has recently diagnosed with left ventricular heart failure. What is an early sign the client is most likely to report?
- A. Dyspnea on exertion
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Swollen legs
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left ventricular failure backs blood into lungs dyspnea on exertion hits early as fluid seeps, taxing breathing during activity, a telltale sign before systemic effects. Abdominal distention or leg swelling marks right-sided or late failure. Weight gain tracks fluid, not initial. Nurses catch dyspnea, educating clients to report it, key to early management in this progressive pump failure.
Which of the following should be not be routinely performed for patients with suspected non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?
- A. Liver biopsy
- B. Imaging studies like US scan
- C. Fasting lipids
- D. Fasting glucose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Liver biopsy, while diagnostic for NAFLD/NASH, isn't routine due to invasiveness and risks, reserved for unclear cases or staging needs, per AASLD. Ultrasound (fatty liver detection), fasting lipids, glucose, and liver function tests are non-invasive, routine screens for metabolic risk and diagnosis confirmation. This approach optimizes chronic disease evaluation safely.
The definition of Chronic Heart Failure is:
- A. Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood to the body
- B. Long-term inability of the heart to meet metabolic demands required to maintain homeostasis
- C. Prolonged enlargement of the left ventricle impacting on the contractility of the muscle
- D. Long term fluid build-up, causing increase in blood volume and reducing the ability of the heart to maintain blood flow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic heart failure's essence long-term pump lag can't match body's metabolic needs, a homeostasis bust. Simple pump fail's vague; LV growth or fluid traps are bits, not the whole. Nurses grasp this, a chronic ticker's root.
When using induced hypotension during orthognathic surgery:
- A. Mean arterial blood pressure may be reduced to 30% of normal in patients of ASA grade I.
- B. The stress response to surgery is attenuated.
- C. Drugs that cause relative bradycardia are useful adjuncts.
- D. The desired effects of clonidine are mediated by αâ‚-adrenoceptors.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Induced hypotension in orthognathic surgery reduces bleeding, enhancing visibility. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) drops to 50-65 mmHg (not 30% of normal, ~20-25 mmHg, which risks ischemia), safe in ASA I patients with monitoring. Stress response attenuation occurs with deep anaesthesia, not hypotension alone. Bradycardia-inducing drugs (e.g., β-blockers, remifentanil) stabilize haemodynamics, aiding controlled hypotension by lowering cardiac output safely. Clonidine, an α₂-agonist (not αâ‚), reduces sympathetic outflow, supporting hypotension and sedation. Invasive monitoring mitigates pressure injury risk. Bradycardia's role enhances technique precision, minimizing transfusion needs while maintaining perfusion in healthy patients.