For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is c...

The nurse is caring for a 64-year-old client.
History and Physical
Body System, Findings
General ,
The client reports a 24-hour history of blurred vision and redness in the left eye with a left-sided headache.
This evening, the client developed acute, severe pain in the left eye accompanied by occasional nausea and
vomiting. The client reports no use of systemic or topical eye medications. Medical history includes
osteoarthritis and hypercholesterolemia.
Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat (EENT),
The client wears eyeglasses to correct farsighted vision. Right eye: pupil 2 mm and reactive to light,
conjunctiva clear. Left eye: pupil 4 mm and nonreactive to light with red conjunctiva. Bilateral lens opacity is noted.
Pulmonary,
Vital signs are RR 20 and SpO, 96% on room air. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs are T 99 F (37.2 C), P 88, and BP 140/82.
Psychosocial,
The client reports a great deal of emotional stress following the recent death of the client's spouse that is accompanied by lack of sleep, poor appetite, and a 7.9-lb (3.6-kg) weight loss within the past month. The client takes diphenhydramine for sleep.

For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of acute angle-closure glaucoma, cataracts, or macular degeneration. Each finding may support more than one disease process.

A. Blind spots
B. Opaque lens
C. Blurred vision
D. Unilateral headache
E. Conjunctival redness
F. Nausea and vomiting
G. Increased intraocular pressure

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma (ACG) is the sudden onset of increased intraocular pressure (IOP) due to impaired aqueous humor drainag
through the angle of the anterior chamber. Acute ACG typically occurs spontaneously but may be triggered by impaired aqueous outflow frol
pupillary dilation (eg, emotional excitement, medications (decongestants, anticholinergics, antihistamines], darkness). As IOP increases,
clients report seeing halos around lights and/or develop blurry vision, unilateral headache, conjunctival redness, and nausea and
vomiting. Increased IOP damages the optic nerve, and the cornea becomes edematous; therefore, light cannot travel effectively from the
cornea to the optic nerve, causing halos to be seen.
Cataracts are a slowly progressive pacification of the lens that results from oxidative damage. Refractive changes in the lens cause clients
to initially develop difficulty reading fine print because of the opaque lens. As the cataract progresses, clients develop painless, blurry visio
and have difficulty with nighttime driving because they see a glare and halos around lights. Halos and glare occur because light cannot
travel through the opacified lens effectively and instead disperses in various angles.
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a progressive, incurable disease of the eye characterized by deterioration of the macula, the
central portion of the retina. This deterioration causes visual disturbances (wavy or blurred vision), blind spots, or loss of the central field
vision; peripheral vision remains intact. AMD has a vascular pathogenesis that is unrelated to increased IOP. Clients with AMD have a norm
cornea, lens, and optic nerve; therefore, halos are not seen.

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old client in the emergency department.
Nurses' Notes,

Emergency Department
1020:
The client reports shortness of breath, a 2-lb weight gain over the past week, and lower extremity swelling. The client
reports slight chest discomfort during activity that is relieved with rest. Medical history is significant for hypertension.
myocardial infarction, heart failure, coronary artery disease, and chronic stable angina. Current medications include
metoprolol, furosemide, potassium chloride, lisinopril, and aspirin. The client takes all medications as prescribed except
one; he states, "I do not take that water pill because I got tired of having to go to the bathroom all the time."
S1 and S2 are present; a prominent S3 is heard. Respirations are labored with inspiratory crackles in the middle and at the
base of the lungs. The abdomen is soft and nontender with normoactive bowel sounds. There is 3+ pitting edema in the
bilateral lower extremities.

Vital Signs,
1020
T ,98.8 F (37.1 C)
P, 60
RR, 24
BP, 168/96
SpO2, 90% on room air

Laboratory Test and Reference Range, 1030
Sodium
136-145 mEq/L
(136-145 mmol/L),
133 mEq/L
(133 mmol/L)
Potassium
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
(3.5-5.0 mmol/L),
6.5 mEq/L
(6.5 mmol/L)
BUN
10-20 mg/dL
(3.6-7.1 mmol/L),
22 mg/dL
(7.85 mmol/L)
Creatinine
Male: 0.6-1.3 mg/dL
(53-114.9 umol/L),
1.5 mg/dL
(132.6 umol/L)
Female: 0.5-1.1 mg/dL
(44.2-97.2 umol/L)

The nurse has reviewed the information from the Laboratory Results. Complete the following sentence/sentences by choosing from the list/lists of options.The nurse should prioritize interventions to treat ------------ due to the risk of ---------------------.

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Dysrhythmias
C. Elevated BUN
D. Seizures
E. Hyponatremia
F. Acute kidney injury

Correct Answer: A,B

Rationale: The client's laboratory results show hyperkalemia (ie, high potassium) and decreased kidney function, seen as elevated BUN and creatinine.
The kidneys balance potassium levels by eliminating excess potassium through urine. Clients with heart failure (HF) are at an increased risk fo
hyperkalemia due to poor kidney perfusion from decreased cardiac output and medication adverse effects. This client's decreased kidney
function and home medications, including lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) and supplemental potassium chloride, all increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
Because potassium is responsible for myocardial cell repolarization, hyper- or hypokalemia may lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Therefore, the nurse should prioritize interventions to treat hyperkalemia due to the risk of dysrhythmias.

Nurses' Notes
Outpatient Clinic
Initial
visit
The child recently started attending a new preschool and hit a teacher during lunch. The parent says,
"My
child has never been aggressive before but has always been particular about food."
The client was born at full term without complications and has no significant medical history. The child
started babbling at age 6 months, and the parent reports that the first words were spoken around age 12
months. The client then became quiet and "obsessed" with stacking blocks and organizing toys by color.
The child can kick a ball, draw a circle, pedal a tricycle, and now says two-word phrases. Vitals signs are
normal, and the client is tracking adequately on growth curves.
During the evaluation, the child sits in the corner of the room playing with blocks. The client does not follow
the parents gaze when the parent points to toys in the office. The child begins screaming and rocking back
and forth when the health care provider comes near.
Laboratory Results
Laboratory Test and
Reference Range
1030
Glucose (random)
71-200 mg/dL
(3.9-11.1 mmol/L)
110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
Sodium
136-145 mEq/L
(136-145 mmol/L)|
133 mEq/L (133 mmol/L)|
Potassium
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
(3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
4.5 mEq/L (4.5 mmol/L)
B-type natriuretic peptide
<100 pg/mL
(<100 ng/L)
640 pg/mL (640 ng/L)
Diagnostic Results
Chest X-ray
1030:Mild cardiomegaly
Echocardiogram
1100:Mild left ventricular hypertrophy with left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%

For each potential intervention, click to specify if the intervention is expected or not expected for the care of the client.

A. Daily weights
B. IV furosemide
C. Fluid restriction
D. Supplemental oxygen
E. Antihypertensive medications
F. Nebulized albuterol breathing treatments

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Expected interventions for acute decompensated heart failure (HF) focus on reducing cardiac workload and improving
oxygenation. These include:
• Daily weights should be performed to monitor fluid volume status and guide treatment. Ideally, daily weights should be
performed at the same time of day, on the same scale, and with the client wearing the same amount of clothing.
• Diuretics (eg, furosemide) prevent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, which increases fluid excretion in
urine and decreases preload. Diuretics provide symptomatic relief by reducing pulmonary congestion and peripheral
edema. These are the cornerstone of therapy and often a priority after oxygen therapy.
• Fluid restriction is indicated to decrease circulating fluid volume and prevent excess strain on the heart.
• Supplemental oxygen should be administered to improve oxygen delivery in clients with HF due to impaired gas
exchange from pulmonary edema.
• Antihypertensive medications reduce cardiac workload and improve contractility by lowering blood pressure (ie,
afterload).
Nebulized albuterol is a bronchodilator administered to improve oxygenation in clients with reactive airway disease (eg.
asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). Bronchodilators will not improve oxygenation in clients with pulmonary
edema and are not expected for treatment of HF.

The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old client.
Progress Notes

Clinic Visit
For the past week, the client has experienced flu-like symptoms, including low-grade fevers, headaches, nausea, vomiting, and, today,
diarrhea and dark urine. The client reports widespread itching but has no rash. Skin and scleras are jaundiced. No lymphadenopathy
is present, and the abdomen is nondistended with a palpable liver edge. The client returned from an international mission trip a few
weeks ago.
Vital signs are T 99.9 F (37.7 C), P 88, RR 18, BP 128/80, and SpOz 98% on room air.

Laboratory Results
Laboratory Test and Reference Range ,Current
Liver Function Tests
Total bilirubin, Increased
Alkaline phosphatase, Increased
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), Increased
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ,Increased

Complete the following sentence by choosing from the lists of options. The nurse suspects the client has ----------- and should implement ----------- precautions.

A. Influenza
B. Droplet
C. Contact
D. Standard
E. Hepatitis A

Correct Answer: D,E

Rationale: Hepatitis A is an infection that leads to widespread inflammation of the liver. Transmission occurs through the fecal-oral route and is commo
in areas with overcrowding and poor sanitation. Outbreaks frequently result from contaminated water or food, and the condition is seen
primarily in resource-limited countries. Symptoms develop abruptly, initially including nausea, vomiting, anorexia, fever, and right upper
quadrant pain. A few days later, dark urine (bilirubinuria) and/or pale stools (lacking bilirubin pigment) may be seen. These are usually
followed by jaundice and pruritus. In addition, laboratory results show elevated liver function tests.
Hand hygiene, especially after toileting and before meals, is the most important intervention for reducing the risk of hepatitis A infection.
Therefore, for a client hospitalized with hepatitis A, standard precautions (ie, hand hygiene, disinfection of equipment and surfaces) must be
implemented to prevent transmission. Additional precautions (eg, disposable gown, gloves) should be used as needed (eg, during procedure

History and Physical
Body System,Findings
General
Client has history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diverticulosis, and
osteoarthritis; Helicobacter pylori infection 2 years ago; client reports taking over-the-counter
ibuprofen every 8 hours for left knee pain for the past 2 weeks; daily medications include aspirin,
carvedilol, lisinopril, and atorvastatin
Neurological
Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation
Pulmonary
Vital signs: RR 20, SpO 96% on room air, lung sounds clear bilaterally; no shortness of breath;
client smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and smokes marijuana 1 or 2 times weekly
Cardiovascular
Vital signs: P 110, BP 90/62; no chest pain; S1 and S2 heard on auscultation; peripheral pulses
2+; client states feeling lightheaded and reports passing out about 1 hour ago
Gastrointestinal
Abdominal pain rated as 4 on a scale of 0-10; one episode of hematemesis; two episodes of
large, black, liquid stools in the morning
Musculoskeletal
Examination of the knees shows crepitus that is worse on the left; no swelling, warmth, or
erythema; range of motion is normal
Psychosocial
Client reports drinking 1 or 2 glasses of wine per day

The nurse has reviewed the information from the Laboratory Results. The health care provider suspects the client is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding. For each potential prescription, click to specify whether the prescription is anticipated or unanticipated for the care of the client.

A. Place the client on NPO status
B. Administer isotonic IV fluid bolus
C. Administer proton pump inhibitor IV
D. Collect blood samples for type and crossmatch
E. Administer heparin for deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Anticipated prescriptions for a client with upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding include:
• Placing the client on NPO status to reduce the risk of continued bleeding and vomiting. NPO status is important to
initiate prior to esophagogastroduodenoscopy to reduce aspiration risk.
• Administering an isotonic IV fluid bolus to restore circulating fluid volume and maintain perfusion of vital organs.
• Administering a proton pump inhibitor IV (eg, pantoprazole) to reduce gastric acid secretion and prevent further
irritation and breakdown of suspected peptic ulcers.
• Collecting blood samples for type and crossmatch to ensure blood type compatibility before initiating a blood
transfusion. This client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low, and the client continues to have active bleeding.
Therefore, a blood transfusion should be anticipated to increase blood volume and improve oxygenation and perfusion.
Administering heparin for deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis is not anticipated. Anticoagulation will prolong bleeding
and increase risk for hemorrhagic shock. Anticoagulation is contraindicated for clients with active GI bleeding.

The nurse is caring for a 16-year-old client. History and Physical
Body System, Finding
General,
Client is brought to the emergency department due to nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that began 24 hr
ago. Client has type 1 diabetes mellitus and usually takes insulin. Parents state that the client was at an
overnight camp for the past 4 days and are unsure of how much insulin the client has been taking.
Neurological,
Client is lethargic but arousable to voice. The pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation.
Integumentary,
Mucous membranes are dry, skin turgor is poor.
Pulmonary,
Vital signs are RR 36 and SpOz 95% on room air. Lung sounds are clear to auscultation. Deep respirations and a
fruity odor on the breath are noted.
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs are T 98.4 F (36.9 C), P 110, and BP 98/58. Pulses are 3+ on all extremities, and capillary refill time is
4 sec.
Gastrointestinal Normoactive bowel sounds are heard in all 4 quadrants; the abdomen is nontender.
Genitourinary,
Client voided dark yellow urine.
Endocrine,
Client is prescribed levothyroxine daily for hypothyroidism and has missed one dose of levothyroxine.
Psychosocial,
Parents state that the client has been sad and slightly withdrawn for the past 2 weeks after ending a romantic relationship.
Laboratory Results
Laboratory Test and Reference Range, 1000, 1600
Blood Chemistry.
Glucose (random)
≤200 mg/dL
(≤11.1 mmol/L),
504 mg/dL
(28.0 mmol/L),
164 mg/dL
(9.1 mmol/L)
Sodium
136-145 mEq/L
(136-145 mmol/L),
133 mEq/L
(133 mmol/L),
135 mEq/L
(135 mmol/L)
Chloride
98-106 mEq/L
(98-106 mmol/L),
101 mEq/L
(101 mmol/L),
102 mEq/L
(102 mmol/L)
Potassium
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
(3.5-5.0 mmol/L),
5.6 mEq/L
(5.6 mmol/L),
3.2 mEq/L
(3.2 mmol/L)
Arterial Blood Gases
Arterial pH
7.35-7.45
(7.35-7.45),
7.20
(7.20),
7.31
(7.31)
HCOg
21-28 mEq/L
(21-28 mmol/L),
13 mEq/L
(13 mmol/L),
18 mEq/L
(18 mmol/L)
PaCO,
35-45 mm Hg
(4.66-5.98 kPa),
30 mm Hg
(3.99 KPa),
32 mm Hg
(4.26 kPa)
PaO,
80-100 mm Hg
(10.64-13.33 KPa),
90 mm Hg
(11.97 kPa),
90 mm Hg
(11.97 kPa)

The nurse has reviewed the information from the Laboratory Results., For each client finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state. Each finding may support more than one disease process.

A. P 110
B. pH 7.2
C. BP 98/58
D. Poor skin turgor
E. Fruity breath odor
F. Positive urine ketones
G. Kussmaul respiration

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) are potentially life-threatening complications of diabetes mellitus
(DM). Clients with a decreased level of consciousness, hyperglycemia, electrolyte imbalances, and signs of dehydration should be evaluate
for both DKA and HHS.
DKA is more common in type 1 DM caused by hypoinsulinemia, resulting in hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis (le, low pH), ketosis (le,
positive ketones in the urine and fruity odor on the breath), and severe dehydration (eg, poor skin turgor, tachycardia, hypotension)
due to osmotic water loss caused by glucosuria. Glucose and potassium are unable to enter the cell due to lack of insulin, causing electroly
imbalances. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that compensate for metabolic acidosis by expelling carbon dioxide (le, an acid)
HHS is characterized by high plasma osmolality and extreme hyperglycemia. Osmolality is increased with dehydration. HHS is more
common in type 2 DM due to a small amount of insulin available to prevent ketosis. Therefore, clients with HHS have a near normal pH leve
and minimal to no urine ketones. Osmotic diuresis and polyuria create a significant fluid volume deficit, causing electrolyte imbalances and
dehydration (eg, poor skin turgor, tachycardia, hypotension), which can lead to hypovolemic shock.
Educational objective:

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