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For each potential prescription, click to specify whether the prescription is expected or not expected for the care of the client.
- A. Administer IV antibiotics
- B. Prepare client for echocardiography
- C. Initiate low-flow supplemental oxygen
- D. Gather supplies for pericardiocentesis
- E. Place peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
- F. Collect a blood specimen for culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Expected prescriptions for clients with suspected infective endocarditis (IE) include:
• Administering IV antibiotics to kill the infectious pathogen
• Preparing the client for echocardiography to identify valvular dysfunction, chamber enlargement, and vegetations
• Placing a peripherally inserted central catheter for long-term IV antibiotic therapy
• Collecting a blood specimen for culture and sensitivity to identify the infectious pathogen
Initiating low-flow supplemental oxygen is not expected because the client is not exhibiting signs of respiratory distress.
Pericardiocentesis is performed to remove excess fluid from the pericardial cavity and prevent progression to cardiac
tamponade. Pericardial effusions are not commonly expected with IE. Furthermore, this client is not exhibiting signs of
pericardial effusion (eg, muffled heart sounds, substernal pain). Therefore, gathering supplies for pericardiocentesis is not
expected.
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One hour after chest tube insertion, the client becomes agitated and knocks over the chest tube collection device. The device is damaged. and the tubing becomes disconnected. Which action should the nurse perform first?
- A. Adjust the head of the bed to semi- or high-Fowler position
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Obtain a new chest tube collection device
- D. Place the distal end of the chest tube into a bottle of sterile saline
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: If a chest tube becomes disconnected from a damaged drainage system, the priority is to restore the water seal, according to facility policy. A
safe, temporary way to accomplish this is to immerse the distal end of the tube (ie, farthest from the client) into a bottle of sterile saline
or sterile water while someone obtains a new water seal collection device. Some facilities may use shodded (rubber-tipped) hemostats to
temporarily clamp the tube until a new water seal device is obtained. However, clamping the tube can quickly cause a pneumothorax and
should be done only very briefly (Option 4).
For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of acute angle-closure glaucoma, cataracts, or macular degeneration. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
- A. Blind spots
- B. Opaque lens
- C. Blurred vision
- D. Unilateral headache
- E. Conjunctival redness
- F. Nausea and vomiting
- G. Increased intraocular pressure
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma (ACG) is the sudden onset of increased intraocular pressure (IOP) due to impaired aqueous humor drainag
through the angle of the anterior chamber. Acute ACG typically occurs spontaneously but may be triggered by impaired aqueous outflow frol
pupillary dilation (eg, emotional excitement, medications (decongestants, anticholinergics, antihistamines], darkness). As IOP increases,
clients report seeing halos around lights and/or develop blurry vision, unilateral headache, conjunctival redness, and nausea and
vomiting. Increased IOP damages the optic nerve, and the cornea becomes edematous; therefore, light cannot travel effectively from the
cornea to the optic nerve, causing halos to be seen.
Cataracts are a slowly progressive pacification of the lens that results from oxidative damage. Refractive changes in the lens cause clients
to initially develop difficulty reading fine print because of the opaque lens. As the cataract progresses, clients develop painless, blurry visio
and have difficulty with nighttime driving because they see a glare and halos around lights. Halos and glare occur because light cannot
travel through the opacified lens effectively and instead disperses in various angles.
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a progressive, incurable disease of the eye characterized by deterioration of the macula, the
central portion of the retina. This deterioration causes visual disturbances (wavy or blurred vision), blind spots, or loss of the central field
vision; peripheral vision remains intact. AMD has a vascular pathogenesis that is unrelated to increased IOP. Clients with AMD have a norm
cornea, lens, and optic nerve; therefore, halos are not seen.
For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of infective endocarditis, pericarditis, or pneumonia. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
- A. New or worsening cardiac murmurs
- B. Muffled heart sounds on auscultation
- C. Splinter hemorrhages on the nail beds
- D. Presence of flu-like symptoms and fever
- E. Substernal pain that is aggravated by inspiration
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Infective endocarditis occurs when an infectious organism forms a vegetation on a heart valve (interior of the heart). Clients
often have nonspecific symptoms of infection such as fever, flu-like symptoms (myalgia, arthralgia), and malaise.
Vegetation on a heart valve makes the valve dysfunctional, creating a new or worsening cardiac murmur. Pieces of
endocardial vegetation can break off, forming microemboli that travel through the arteries to end-capillaries and block blood
flow (eg, splinter hemorrhages on the nail beds), and cause erythematous macular lesions on the palms or soles (Janeway
lesions).
Acute pericarditis is inflammation of the membranous sac surrounding the exterior of the heart (pericardium), which often
causes an increased fluid in the pericardial cavity (ie, pericardial effusion). If pericardial effusions accumulate rapidly or are
very large, they may compress the heart, altering the mechanics of the cardiac cycle (ie, cardiac tamponade). Clinical
manifestations of pericarditis include muffled heart sounds on auscultation, presence of flu-like symptoms and fever, and
substernal pain that is aggravated by inspiration (ie, pleuritic chest pain). Pericardial friction rub, a superficial scratching or
squeaky sound, may be present, but cardiac murmurs are not present (no valve involvement) and embolic phenomena are
uncommon.
Pneumonia is an infection in the lungs that results in the production of cellular debris and purulent secretions that obstruct the
alveoli and prevent adequate oxygenation. Clinical manifestations include the presence of flu-like symptoms and fever,
pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, low capillary oxygen saturation (SpO2), crackles, and productive cough with purulent
sputum.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in the blank/blanks.The nurse understands that the client is most at risk for------------and------------
- A. Sepsis
- B. Delirium tremens
- C. Respiratory failure
- D. Deep venous thrombosis
- E. Decreased cardiac output
Correct Answer: E,C
Rationale: The nurse understands that the client is most at risk for respiratory failure and decreased cardiac output.
Decreased cardiac output is the most concerning complication in a client with a tension pneumothorax. The trapped air in a tension
pneumothorax causes increased pressure, compressing the affected lung more until it is completely collapsed and then compressing the
heart and great vessels (vena cava, aorta), ultimately inhibiting venous return.
If the pleural pressure continues to increase, eventually the pleural cavity will crowd the trachea, forcing it to deviate (shift) to the unaffected
side where the unaffected lung can be compressed. Clients are at high risk for respiratory failure due to hypoxemia. Without treatment, the
lungs cannot meet the demands for oxygenation and the client will die.
The nurse reinforces discharge teaching to the client after laser peripheral iridotomy. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply.
- A. Gently pulling down my lower eyelid creates a pocket where I should administer the drops.
- B. I will apply pressure over the inner corner of my eye after administering each medication
- C. I will stop taking diphenhydramine because it can cause a glaucoma attack.
- D. I will wait 5 minutes between administering each eye drop medication.
- E. Touching my eye with the medication applicator may cause an infection.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: Laser peripheral iridotomy is a surgical intervention for acute angle-closure glaucoma (ACG) that involves creating a small hole in the iris to
prevent the drainage pathway from closing and improve movement of aqueous humor into regular outflow channels. Ophthalmic alpha-
adrenergic agonists (eg, apraclonidine, brimonidine) are administered postoperatively to reduce aqueous humor production and prevent an
elevation in intraocular pressure.
Important considerations for the administration of ophthalmic drops include:
• Pulling the lower eyelid down by gently pressing on the lower orbital bone to expose the conjunctival sac (Option 1)
• Applying pressure over the inner corner of the eye (eg, lacrimal duct) after each medication to avoid systemic absorption (Option 2)
• Waiting at least 5 minutes before instilling a different medication into the same eye to allow absorption of the first medication and to
avoid overflow with multiple drops (Option 4)
• Holding the dropper ½*% in (1-2 cm) above the conjunctival sac to prevent contamination of the dropper and infection of the eye
(Option 5)
Clients should also be instructed to consult with their health care provider before taking over-the-counter medications (eg, decongestants,
anticholinergics, antihistamines) because a subsequent episode of acute ACG may be triggered by certain medications (Option 3).