For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?
- A. Headache
- B. Pruritus
- C. Vomiting
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.
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A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?
- A. Lower extremity edema
- B. Sensory changes in the upper extremities
- C. Increased occurrence of fractures
- D. Decreased peripheral blood flow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.
Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?
- A. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage of the client post cholecystectomy
- B. Performing passive range of motion on the client with right-sided paralysis
- C. Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
- D. Discarding the first urine voided by the client starting a 24-hour urine test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.
Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?
- A. Wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant
- B. Wearing the same gloves for assessments of clients in the same room
- C. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the urine bag and nasogastric canister of an infected client
- D. Donning a gown when responding to a request by the family to check the IV pump on a client with rotavirus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant. Standard precautions require the use of gloves when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. Clean gloves are suitable for this task as they provide adequate protection without being sterile. Choice B is incorrect because wearing the same gloves for different clients can lead to cross-contamination, violating standard precautions. Choice C is incorrect as sterile gloves are usually not required for changing a urine bag and nasogastric canister unless a specific aseptic technique is indicated; standard precautions do not demand sterile gloves for such tasks. Choice D is incorrect as donning a gown is not necessary for checking an IV pump unless there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids that would necessitate full-body protection, which is not indicated in this scenario.
The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:
- A. Fearful situations
- B. Depression
- C. Delusions
- D. Anxiety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.
The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?
- A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
- B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
- C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
- D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.