Reading Comprehension Related

Have you ever wondered why the whistle of a traveling, distant locomotive predicts its approach several yards before anyone actually sees it? Or why an oncoming ambulance's screaming siren is heard momentarily several feet before the ambulance comes into full view, before it passes you, and why its siren is still heard faintly well after the ambulance is out of sight?
What you are witnessing is a scientific phenomenon known as the Doppler Effect. What takes place is truly remarkable. In both of these instances, when the train or ambulance moves toward the sound waves in front of it, the sound waves are pulled closer together and have a higher frequency. In either instance, the listener positioned in front of the moving object hears a higher pitch. The ambulance and locomotive are progressively moving away from the sound waves behind them, causing the waves to be farther apart and to have a lower frequency. These fast-approaching modes of transportation distance themselves past the listener, who hears a lower pitch.

What is the main idea of the passage?

• A. Trains and ambulances emit loud noises.
• B. Low-frequency waves produce high-pitched sounds.
• C. High-frequency waves result in low-pitched sounds.
• D. The Doppler Effect explains why sound is heard more strongly initially and then faintly after a moving object has passed.

The Game of Bridge
The ebb and flow of laughter and silence fills the room as
four old friends gather to engage in a round of Bridge
playing. For the beginner, Bridge can be complicated, but
with time, effort, and a good teacher, even the novice can
become proficient.
Composed of two main parts, bidding and playing, Bridge
requires the player's undivided attention. The dealer deals
the entire deck of playing cards evenly between the for
players, with each person receiving thirteen cards. In the
bidding portion of the game, the four suits of cards in the
deck are ranked highest to lowest as follows:
spades, hearts, diamonds, and finally clubs. However,
during play all the suits of cards are considered equals,
and they go from highest to lowest from the ace being
high to the two cards being low. The highest number of
tricks wins. A trick is one card played by each player for a
total of four. After the lead player lays down his/her card,
the other players follow suit, if possible. The highest card
within the four "same suit" cards played wins the trick
and picks up all four cards. If a player cannot follow suit,
he/she plays any card, but to make the game more
interesting and challenging, one suit is named a trump suit
which means that if a player plays a card from the trump
suit, it always wins the trick. If two cards from the trump
suit are played, the highest card within the trump suit
wins the trick. Obviously, the team with the most tricks
wins the hand.

How does the author want the reader to feel?

• A. As though the game of Bridge is too hard for novices to learn.
• B. Frustrated and confused about playing Bridge.
• C. Confident and excited about learning the game of Bridge.
• D. Overwhelmed by all the rules for the game of Bridge.

Nurseries
If you thought nurseries were just for babies, well, think again! Being special kinds of farms, nurseries are used to raise plants in mass quantities. Plants, trees, and shrubs are typically grown in nurseries and then sold to farmers and gardeners to plant in homes, businesses and farms. Most nurseries are found in the more rural parts the country because much land is required to have a viable nursery. If a nursery sells plants to others, it must obtain a special permit from the local city or county, which keeps the competition fair and does not saturate the market with a large number of nurseries selling similar products.
Also on the grounds of nurseries are greenhouses which are made of glass or plastic panes that protect the plants from weather elements that may harm them and cause them not to grow and develop. The glass panels in greenhouses allow for sunlight to enter and moisture to be trapped inside. This creates a tropical environment which allows orchids and poinsettias to grow. It ensures that vegetables and fruits will grow large, which makes them valuable to farmers.

Why do they need a special permit?

• A. To ensure that nurseries follow safety regulations.
• B. Too many nurseries mean that there are not enough buyers for the plants that need to be sold.
• C. To control the quality of plants sold in nurseries.
• D. To provide financial assistance to new nursery owners.

It is a well-known fact that it takes the Earth approximately 365 days to orbit the Sun. At the same time, the Earth revolves or spins around itself over the course of 24 hours, which explains why we experience day and night. One half of the Earth is always facing the Sun, while the other half is facing away. As a result, different time zones divide the globe. Moving suddenly from one time zone to another, such as when flying from Asia to North America, can cause jet lag. People often feel tired, wake up suddenly during the night, and cannot return to sleep. It takes time to adjust to a new time zone. Another important factor to consider is the slight tilt of the Earth toward the Sun. The Earth does not stand straight but leans slightly to one side. Therefore, when it revolves around the Sun, the middle part of the Earth is always closer to the Sun and receives more heat. This area is called the equator, and the regions above and below it are known as the tropics. Countries located in the tropics receive a consistent amount of daylight throughout the year, with the Sun rising at 6 AM and setting at 6 PM. In contrast, the tips of the Earth, or the poles, receive hardly any light because they are so far from the Sun. There are two main seasons at the poles: 6 months of summer, when the Sun is always shining (even at night), and 6 months of winter, characterized by constant darkness. Between the tropics and the poles lies the temperate zone, where there are four distinct seasons. The Sun rises and sets at different times throughout the year. In spring and summer, it gets light earlier; in fall and winter, it gets dark earlier. People living in temperate zones take advantage of this variation to maximize their daylight exposure. At the beginning of spring, countries in Europe and North America readjust their clocks by moving them an hour ahead. As a result, the Sun does not set around 7 or 8 PM as usual, but an hour later. This practice is called Daylight Savings Time (DST) and lasts until the beginning of fall, when people move their clocks back one hour to Standard or Regular Time. It is believed that Benjamin Franklin first suggested the introduction of Daylight Savings Time in the 18th century, but the first serious proposal came in 1907 from William Willet. However, his idea was shelved by the British government, which deemed it unnecessary. Daylight Savings Time was first implemented by the German government in 1916 in order to save energy during World War I. Shortly after, the United Kingdom followed suit, with the United States doing the same in 1918. The law was unpopular, as people had to wake up earlier, leading many to experience a feeling similar to jet lag. However, the energy crisis of the 1970s forced the U.S. to establish Daylight Savings Time as law. Studies showed that the introduction of Daylight Savings Time in the spring saved the U.S. 10,000 barrels of oil per day between 1974 and 1975. It also prevented 2,000 traffic injuries and 50 traffic-related deaths, saving the country $28 million. Currently, Americans switch to Daylight Savings Time on the first Sunday in April and revert to Standard Time on the last Sunday in October. As of 2007, the time adjustments occur even earlier in March and November.

Was Daylight Savings Time popular in the beginning?

• A. Yes, people wanted to save energy.
• B. Yes, people like staying up late in the summer months.
• C. No, there was a war at that time and people hated it.
• D. No, people felt tired because they couldn't sleep that long.

Subjective exams measure your ability in several areas. Besides recall information, you must be
able to realize content logically and intelligently express yourself in a clearly understood manner. Subjective test provide opportunity for students to show their broad knowledge of a subjective
area. Answers may be in the form of paragraphs or lengthy essays. When your review for an essay exam, concentrate on main ideas rather than details. Since essay tests are less to a few questions, they are likely to deal with more important ideas of a subject. Prepare a list of question you think might be asked. Write an answer to each of your questions. Rather than writing complete sentence down your thoughts in outline form. Doing so will help
you organize the information so that you can express yourself clearly.
When you take the test, read through all the questions before you start to write. Allot time for each question, spending more time for questions worth the most points. Read each question carefully to determine exactly what they are asked. Pay attention to words such as define, illustrate, explain, list, compare, and contrast. Each work requires a different type of response. Write a brief outline of your answer on scrap paper or the back of the test. Make sure you include all the important ideas that are within the limits of the question. In other words, do not write more than is asked for each answer. When you write your answer, keep it specific and as brief as possible. In the introductory sentence it is often helpful to make a general statement that includes
important points addressed in each question. Such a topic sentence serves as a framework for your answer. Then use your outline to develop the main point and subtopics. Add substance to
your answer by including as many facts as possible to support your answer.
Check your paper before you submit it. Look for mistakes in grammar, spelling, sentence
structure, and punctuation. Unless you are certain an answer is wrong, do not change it. Your answer is an educated guess and is usually your best chance of answering correctly

Compared to objective exams, essay tests contain

• A. no good answers
• B. more questions
• C. fewer questions
• D. harder questions