Nokea
Health promotion activities are designed to help clients:
- A. reduce the risk of illness
- B. maintain maximal function
- C. promote healthy habits related to healthcare
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Health promotion activities encompass a broad range of interventions aimed at enhancing overall well-being. These activities not only focus on reducing the risk of illness but also on maintaining maximal function and promoting healthy habits related to healthcare. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all integral components of health promotion strategies, emphasizing the multidimensional approach required to support clients in achieving optimal health outcomes.
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A 17-year-old female was raped by a young man in her neighborhood. She is in the Emergency Department for evaluation and tests. After the procedure is completed, a rape crisis counselor (nurse specialist) talks to the client in a conference room regarding the rape. Implementing counseling by the nurse specialist for the raped victim represents:
- A. assessment.
- B. crisis intervention.
- C. empathetic concern.
- D. unwarranted intrusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Crisis intervention is the correct choice. Counseling by a nurse specialist after a traumatic event like rape falls under the Crisis Intervention Model. This approach aims to provide immediate support to individuals facing a crisis to enhance coping mechanisms. In this scenario, the nurse specialist is offering specialized care tailored to rape victims, helping the client navigate through the emotional aftermath of the traumatic experience. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A is not the correct answer as the nurse specialist is providing emotional support rather than conducting an assessment; C, while important, does not fully capture the specialized intervention being provided; and D is inaccurate as the nurse specialist's intervention is warranted and essential for the victim's well-being.
If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?
- A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
- B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
- C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
- D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.
When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?
- A. Tongue symmetry
- B. Eye movements
- C. Facial symmetry
- D. Corneal reflex
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).
In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?
- A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
- B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
- C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
- D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received the DTaP (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine along with the polio vaccine. The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is not typically given until the child is 12-15 months old. Therefore, option B is correct as it includes vaccines that are usually administered by 12 months of age. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include vaccines that are typically given after 12 months of age.
What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?
- A. Health Belief Model
- B. Education-School-Completing Factor
- C. Family Health Expert Factor
- D. Disconnected Family Factor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. This model explains a family's concept of health and illness by focusing on readiness factors, perceived susceptibility, and seriousness of health problems, and positive motivation for wellness. The Health Belief Model is widely used in healthcare to understand and predict health behaviors. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address how a family perceives health and illness. The Health Belief Model is the most appropriate choice as it is specifically designed to explain individual and family beliefs and behaviors related to health and illness.