Nokea
Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Secondary prevention.
- C. Tertiary prevention.
- D. Disability prevention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?
- A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
- B. posterior cord syndrome
- C. central cord syndrome
- D. cauda equina syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.
Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
- A. lettuce
- B. eggs
- C. chocolate
- D. butterscotch
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce and eggs do not significantly affect LES pressure, making them less likely to trigger GERD symptoms. Butterscotch, like lettuce and eggs, does not have a notable effect on LES pressure, so it is not as likely to worsen GERD symptoms as chocolate. Therefore, chocolate is the food to be avoided by clients prone to heartburn due to GERD.
Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?
- A. high HDL cholesterol
- B. low HDL cholesterol
- C. low total cholesterol
- D. low triglycerides
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High HDL cholesterol is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL cholesterol is known as 'good' cholesterol. It helps remove other forms of cholesterol, like LDL cholesterol, from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries. Low HDL cholesterol (Choice B) is actually a risk factor for cardiovascular disease because it means there is less of the 'good' cholesterol to perform its protective functions. Low total cholesterol (Choice C) and low triglycerides (Choice D) are not necessarily associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease, as the balance and types of cholesterol play a more crucial role in heart health.
What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?
- A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
- B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
- C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
- D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.
After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?
- A. a high-protein meal
- B. a high-fat meal
- C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
- D. a high-carbohydrate meal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.