How does an increase in surface area affect the force of friction between two surfaces?
- A. Increases friction
- B. Decreases friction
- C. Has no effect on friction
- D. Causes unpredictable changes in friction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An increase in surface area typically increases the force of friction between two surfaces. This is because with a larger surface area in contact, there are more points of contact between the surfaces, leading to a greater frictional force resisting motion. As a result, the correct answer is that an increase in surface area increases the force of friction between two surfaces. Choice B is incorrect because a greater surface area increases the frictional force. Choice C is incorrect because an increase in surface area results in more contact points and greater friction. Choice D is incorrect as the relationship between surface area and friction is predictable - an increase in surface area generally leads to an increase in frictional force.
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Which hormone, produced by the ovaries, is responsible for the development of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle and supports early pregnancy?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progesterone
- C. Testosterone
- D. Prolactin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Progesterone, produced by the ovaries, is responsible for the development of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle and supports early pregnancy. While estrogen also plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle, progesterone is specifically known for its role in preparing the uterus for pregnancy and maintaining the uterine lining. Testosterone is primarily a male sex hormone and not directly involved in these processes. Prolactin is a hormone that is mainly associated with milk production and not related to the development of the uterine lining or early pregnancy.
Which type of immune cell does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) target and destroy?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Helper T cells
- D. Memory B cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HIV targets and destroys Helper T cells, which are vital for coordinating the immune response against infections. The destruction of Helper T cells weakens the immune system, leading to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Neutrophils (Choice A) are primarily involved in acute inflammatory responses and fighting bacterial infections. Macrophages (Choice B) play a role in phagocytosis and antigen presentation but are not the primary target of HIV. Memory B cells (Choice D) are responsible for mounting a quicker and more robust antibody response upon re-exposure to a pathogen, but they are not the main target of HIV infection.
What is the process of combining two or more substances to form a heterogeneous mixture called?
- A. Dissolving
- B. Diluting
- C. Mixing
- D. Reacting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mixing.' When substances are combined, a heterogeneous mixture is formed where the components are physically distinguishable. 'Dissolving' (Choice A) is the process of a solute becoming uniformly dispersed in a solvent to form a solution, not a heterogeneous mixture. 'Diluting' (Choice B) refers to reducing the concentration of a solute in a solution. 'Reacting' (Choice D) involves a chemical change where substances interact to form new products, rather than just physically mixing to form a heterogeneous mixture.
What is the process by which damaged muscle tissue repairs and rebuilds itself?
- A. Degeneration
- B. Regeneration
- C. Hyperplasia
- D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Regeneration is the correct answer. It is the process by which damaged muscle tissue repairs and rebuilds itself. New muscle cells are formed during regeneration to replace the damaged ones, allowing the muscle to heal and regain its function. Degeneration refers to tissue breakdown, hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, and metaplasia is the transformation of one type of tissue into another.
What type of inheritance pattern results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation?
- A. Incomplete dominance
- B. Codominance
- C. Sex-linked inheritance
- D. Autosomal dominant inheritance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Autosomal dominant inheritance results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. This inheritance pattern occurs when a single copy of the dominant allele is enough to express the dominant phenotype.
A) Incomplete dominance: In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is a blend of the two homozygous phenotypes, and it does not lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation.
B) Codominance: In codominance, both alleles are fully expressed in the heterozygous phenotype, but this pattern also does not result in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation.
C) Sex-linked inheritance: Sex-linked inheritance involves genes located on the sex chromosomes and does not typically lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation.