Nokea
How does rivaroxaban (Xarelto) work?
- A. Inhibits thrombin
- B. Inhibits fibrinogen
- C. Thins your blood
- D. Works against vitamin K
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor that works by inhibiting thrombin formation. Thrombin is a key enzyme in the blood coagulation pathway, and by inhibiting it, rivaroxaban prevents the formation of fibrin clots. Choices B and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not directly inhibit fibrinogen or work against vitamin K. Choice C is also incorrect as rivaroxaban does not actually "thin" the blood but rather prevents the formation of clots by inhibiting thrombin.
You may also like to solve these questions
This drug can potentiate the effect of prostacyclins to antagonize platelet stickiness and therefore decreases platelet adhesion to thrombogenic surfaces.
- A. Sulfinpyrazone
- B. Dipyridamole
- C. Ticlopidine
- D. Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dipyridamole. Dipyridamole works by inhibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase, leading to an increase in cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels. This increase in cAMP levels potentiates the effect of prostacyclins, which inhibit platelet stickiness and decrease platelet adhesion to thrombogenic surfaces.
Rationale:
A: Sulfinpyrazone is a uricosuric agent, not a platelet anti-aggregant.
C: Ticlopidine and D: Clopidogrel are both antiplatelet agents but work by different mechanisms (ADP receptor antagonists). They do not potentiate prostacyclins and do not directly affect cAMP levels.
A 70-year-old man with back pain, fatigue, fever, Hb 7 g/dL, MCV 89 fL, high Ca, renal insufficiency. Definitive diagnosis best made by?
- A. 24-hour urine protein
- B. Bone scan
- C. Renal biopsy
- D. Greater than 30% plasma cells in bone marrow
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Greater than 30% plasma cells in bone marrow. This scenario is indicative of multiple myeloma, a plasma cell disorder. High Ca and renal insufficiency suggest hypercalcemia and kidney damage due to monoclonal protein deposition. Anemia and MCV suggest bone marrow involvement. Choice A is not specific for multiple myeloma. Choice B is used to evaluate bone metastasis. Choice C is invasive and not typically done for initial diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Therefore, D is the best option for definitive diagnosis in this case.
Viral hemorrhagic fever after Africa trip. Virus family?
- A. Filovirus
- B. Togavirus
- C. Bunyavirus
- D. Flavivirus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Identify symptoms of viral hemorrhagic fever
Step 2: Recall common viruses causing viral hemorrhagic fever
Step 3: Understand characteristics of virus families
Step 4: Filoviruses, like Ebola and Marburg, are known to cause viral hemorrhagic fevers due to their high pathogenicity.
Step 5: Togaviruses, Bunyaviruses, and Flaviviruses are not typically associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers.
Summary: Filovirus is the correct answer as it is a known cause of viral hemorrhagic fevers, while the other choices are not commonly associated with this condition.
HIV positive about early manifestations of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)- statements to include in the teaching?
- A. You can expect an elevated white blood cell count- decreased WBC count as a result of the HIV virus destroying CD4-T cells
- B. You can expect a persistent fever and swollen glands- fever, swollen glands, diarrhea, weight loss, and along with fatigue
- C. You will notice improved energy levels
- D. Your skin will become dry and scaly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because early manifestations of AIDS include persistent fever, swollen glands, diarrhea, weight loss, and fatigue due to the immune system being compromised by HIV. Choice A is incorrect because HIV leads to a decreased, not elevated, white blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as energy levels typically decline with AIDS progression. Choice D is incorrect as dry and scaly skin is not a common early symptom of AIDS.
Which statement made by the nurse indicates an understanding of the clinical manifestations of anemia from acute blood loss?
- A. The patient lost a lot of blood through trauma; she will need to be on a high iron diet.
- B. The patient reports feeling lightheaded, and blood pressure dropped when she stood up.
- C. [Incomplete due to OCR error]
- D. [Incomplete due to OCR error]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because feeling lightheaded and experiencing a drop in blood pressure upon standing are common clinical manifestations of anemia from acute blood loss. This indicates that the body is not able to adequately supply oxygen to tissues due to decreased red blood cell count. Option A is incorrect as focusing solely on high iron diet overlooks the immediate need for medical intervention. Options C and D are incomplete, thus cannot be evaluated.