Nokea
How is gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated in infants?
- A. By placing the infant NPO
- B. By thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal
- C. By placing the infant to sleep on the side
- D. By switching the infant to cow's milk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is typically treated by thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal. This helps reduce reflux episodes by making the feedings heavier and less likely to come back up. Placing the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the typical treatment for GER as infants need proper nutrition for growth. Placing the infant to sleep on the side is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS; infants should be placed on their back to sleep. Switching the infant to cow's milk is also not a treatment for GER, as cow's milk can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
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Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
- B. Reposition the client for comfort.
- C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.
A young adult client, admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs. The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all PRBCs have been transfused?
- A. 23%
- B. 25%
- C. 27%
- D. 29%
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: One unit of PRBCs typically raises the hematocrit by 3%. Since the client received 4 units, the hematocrit is expected to increase by approximately 12% (4 units x 3% per unit). Therefore, the nurse should expect the client's hematocrit to be 29% after all PRBCs have been transfused. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not account for the cumulative effect of multiple PRBC units on the hematocrit level.
What are early signs of varicella disease?
- A. High fever over 101°F (38.3°C)
- B. General malaise
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Crusty sores
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.
The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?
- A. Experiences an elevation in temperature.
- B. Sleeps on the left side.
- C. Cries vigorously.
- D. Eats.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.