How many calories per kilogram does an average full-term infant require when the infant is around 1-2 months old?
- A. 140 calories per kilogram per day
- B. 120 calories per kilogram per day
- C. 100 calories per kilogram per day
- D. 160 calories per kilogram per day
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An average full-term infant requires about 120 calories per kilogram per day at 1-2 months old. This amount is essential for their growth and development during this critical stage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they provide calorie amounts that are either too high or too low for an average full-term infant at 1-2 months old, which could potentially lead to health issues or inadequate nutrition.
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Select the nursing theorist who is accurately paired with the theory or model of nursing that they are credited with.
- A. The Twelve Nursing Problems: Faye Glenn Abdullah
- B. The Nature of Nursing: Imogene King
- C. The Goal Attainment Theory: Virginia Henderson
- D. The Interpersonal Relations Model: Hildegard Peplau
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hildegard Peplau is credited with the Interpersonal Relations Model in nursing. Faye Glenn Abdullah is associated with the Developmental Theory of Nursing. Imogene King developed the Theory of Goal Attainment. Virginia Henderson is known for the Definition of Nursing. Therefore, among the given options, only Hildegard Peplau is correctly paired with the Interpersonal Relations Model.
Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.
- A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
- B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
- C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
- D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.
A nurse is assisting with the orientation of a newly licensed nurse. The newly licensed nurse is having trouble focusing and has difficulty completing care for his assigned clients. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Offer to provide care for his clients while he takes a break
- B. Advise him to complete less time-consuming tasks first
- C. Ask other staff members to take over some of his tasks
- D. Recommend that he take time to plan at the beginning of his shift
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention is to recommend that the new nurse takes time to plan at the beginning of his shift. Planning ahead can help improve time management and focus. Option A is not ideal as it does not address the root cause of the issue and may not promote independence. Option B may not be effective if the nurse is struggling with time management in general. Option C involves shifting responsibilities to others without addressing the new nurse's need for improvement in managing his workload, which should be the priority.
A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Remove the restraints from the client's wrists
- B. Review the chart for nonrestraint alternatives for agitation
- C. Speak with the AP about the incident
- D. Inform the unit manager of the incident
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.
Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.