How many drops per minute should be delivered?
- A. 6
- B. 17
- C. 50
- D. 100
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication.
Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate
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What is the primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process?
- A. To collect and analyze data to establish a database
- B. To interpret and analyze data so as to identify health problems
- C. To write appropriate client-centered nursing diagnoses
- D. To design a plan of care for and with the client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process (step 3) is to design a plan of care for and with the client. This involves setting specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals to address the client's health problems. By involving the client in the planning process, it promotes client autonomy and ensures that the plan is tailored to their individual needs and preferences. Options A and B focus on data collection and analysis, which are steps 1 and 2 of the nursing process. Option C refers to nursing diagnosis, which is part of step 2 (diagnosis). Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it pertains to the specific purpose of the outcome identification and planning step.
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
- A. The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help.
- B. The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications.
- C. The patient is apprehensive about discharge.
- D. The patient’s surgery was not successful.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge. This is supported by stable vital signs and nearly healed incision, suggesting physical recovery. Choice A is incorrect as fear of being alone does not necessarily mean the patient can perform dressing changes independently. Choice B is incorrect as resuming medications is not related to the patient's fear of being alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest the surgery was unsuccessful based on the information provided.
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
- A. Related to visual field deficits
- B. Related to impaired balance
- C. Related to difficulty swallowing
- D. Related to psychomotor seizures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.
A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Lie supine with his neck extended
- B. Sit upright, leaning slightly forward
- C. Blow his nose and then put lateral pressure on his nose
- D. Hold his nose while bending forward at the waist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sit upright, leaning slightly forward. This position helps to minimize blood flow to the head, reducing the risk of increased bleeding. It also prevents blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of aspiration.
A: Lying supine with the neck extended can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the head, potentially worsening the epistaxis.
C: Blowing the nose and putting lateral pressure can disrupt any clots that may have formed and increase bleeding.
D: Holding the nose while bending forward at the waist can lead to blood flowing down the throat and increase the risk of aspiration.
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom characteristic of the later stages of TB?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Anorexia
- C. Hemoptysis
- D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoptysis. In the later stages of TB, the infection can lead to damage in the lungs, causing blood to be coughed up (hemoptysis). This is a serious symptom indicating advanced disease progression. Fatigue (A), anorexia (B), and weight loss (D) are common symptoms of TB but can occur in earlier stages as well. Hemoptysis specifically indicates more severe lung involvement, making it characteristic of later stages.
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