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How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
- B. Monitor urine output
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.
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Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for a client with dementia who is at risk of falls?
- A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
- B. Use a bed exit alarm system to notify staff when the client attempts to leave the bed
- C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
- D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using a bed exit alarm system is a non-restrictive intervention that alerts staff when the client tries to leave the bed, promoting safety and preventing falls. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can have adverse effects and should be avoided whenever possible. Choice C is not the priority for a client at risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls without proper supervision. Choice D is also not recommended as raising all four side rails can lead to restraint and should be used cautiously, if at all. Therefore, the best option is to use a bed exit alarm system to ensure the client's safety while allowing some freedom of movement.
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with left-leg weakness who is learning to use a cane?
- A. Maintain two points of support on the floor at all times
- B. Use the cane on the weak side of the body
- C. Advance the cane and the strong leg simultaneously
- D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with left-leg weakness learning to use a cane is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This ensures stability and helps distribute weight evenly between the legs, reducing the risk of falls. Using the cane on the weak side of the body (Choice B) may not provide adequate support. Advancing the cane and the strong leg simultaneously (Choice C) can lead to imbalance and increases the risk of falls. Advancing the cane too far with each step (Choice D) can also compromise balance and stability.
A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?
- A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
- B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
- C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
- D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.
What are the key signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles
- B. Decreased respiratory rate and cyanosis
- C. Cyanosis and use of accessory muscles
- D. Altered mental status and bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.
What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor blood pressure and provide dietary education
- B. Monitor urine output and provide IV fluids
- C. Administer diuretics and restrict fluid intake
- D. Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and provide dialysis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nurses play a crucial role in managing patients with kidney disease by monitoring blood pressure and providing essential dietary education. This helps in maintaining kidney function and overall health. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring urine output and providing IV fluids are tasks usually performed by healthcare providers such as physicians or specialized staff. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics and restricting fluid intake are typically prescribed by a physician, and nurses may assist in monitoring the effects. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias and providing dialysis are tasks that are usually overseen by healthcare providers with specialized training in cardiology and nephrology.