How should a nurse educate a mother about kangaroo care for her preterm infant?
- A. Encourage frequent visits to the NICU
- B. Educate about skin-to-skin contact benefits
- C. Explain the importance of bonding
- D. Teach the mother about safe handling of the newborn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Kangaroo care promotes bonding and regulates temperature for preterm infants.
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What is the most appropriate action for a nurse when a newborn has jaundice on the second day of life?
- A. Increase fluid intake of the mother
- B. Phototherapy
- C. Monitor bilirubin levels
- D. Refer to a pediatric specialist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phototherapy helps treat jaundice by breaking down bilirubin.
The nurse is assessing a pregnant client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Monitor for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
- B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
- C. Provide antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- D. Assess for fetal growth restriction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is critical due to the risk of complications from persistent vomiting.
A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? pH 7.22, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, Base excess -2, PaO2 78 mm Hg, Saturation 80%, Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The ABG values provided indicate respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increase in PaCO2 above the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). In this case, the pH is 7.22 (below normal) with an elevated PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg. The other values do not suggest metabolic acidosis (which would typically show low bicarbonate levels) or metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the ABGs is respiratory acidosis.
A nurse in a woman's health clinic is obtaining a health history from a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- A. Recurrent Cystitis
- B. Frequent Alcohol Use
- C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
- D. Chlamydia Infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is commonly caused by untreated or inadequately treated sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhea. When these infections ascend through the reproductive organs, they can lead to inflammation, scarring, and damage to the reproductive structures, resulting in PID. It is crucial for healthcare providers to identify and treat chlamydia infections promptly to prevent complications like PID. Recurrent cystitis (choice A), frequent alcohol use (choice B), and use of oral contraceptives (choice C) do not directly increase the risk for PID as compared to a sexually transmitted infection like chlamydia.
Before giving a client oral combination contraceptives, which side effects should the nurse tell the patient to be aware of? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Irregular bleeding
- B. Thick vaginal discharge
- C. Nausea
- D. Breast tenderness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The common side effects of oral combination contraceptives include irregular bleeding, nausea, and breast tenderness. Choice B is incorrect because thick vaginal discharge is not a typical side effect of oral contraceptives.