Nokea
How should a nurse listen to the breath sounds of a client?
- A. Ask the client to lie prone.
- B. Ask the client to breathe in and out through the nose.
- C. Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the chest.
- D. Listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To best listen to breath sounds, the nurse should have the client sit, leaning slightly forward, with arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little deeper than usual, but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should hold the flat diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope firmly against the client's chest wall. It is crucial to listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest to assess breath sounds accurately. Side-to-side comparison is essential in breath sound assessment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the correct procedure for listening to breath sounds.
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A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
- A. Xerosis
- B. Pruritus
- C. Seborrhea
- D. Actinic keratoses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.
The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
- A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
- B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
- C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
- D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.
Around what age do children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety'?
- A. 9 months
- B. 6 months
- C. 3 months
- D. 12 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is '6 months.' At around this age, children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety' as they become more aware of unfamiliar faces and may start showing signs of distress or anxiety around strangers. At 3 months, infants are still very young and unlikely to display stranger anxiety. While by 9 or 12 months, children have usually already developed some level of stranger anxiety, it typically starts around 6 months, making it the most appropriate answer in this context.
A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse notes the client's skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the client that this condition is caused by which factor?
- A. Constriction of the underlying blood vessels
- B. An increased amount of bilirubin in the blood
- C. Increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues
- D. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of the outflow of blood from an area. Choice A is incorrect because constriction of blood vessels would lead to decreased blood flow, not excess blood. Choice B is incorrect as an increased amount of bilirubin in the blood is related to jaundice, not hyperemia. Choice C is incorrect because increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues would cause redness, not hyperemia.