Nokea
How should the nurse respond to a 72-year-old patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who is skeptical about tamsulosin (Flomax) for symptom relief?
- A. "Flomax can increase the amount of urine your kidneys produce, resulting in better urine flow."
- B. "Flomax can relax your prostate and your bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine."
- C. "Flomax makes your urine less alkaline, reducing the irritation that makes your prostate swell."
- D. "Flomax increases the strength of your bladder muscle and results in a stronger flow of urine."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is choice B because it explains the mechanism of action of Flomax, which helps the patient understand how the medication works. By stating that Flomax relaxes the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine, the nurse is addressing the patient's concerns about symptom relief. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about Flomax's mechanism of action and do not directly address the patient's skepticism or concerns.
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A patient suffers from dysmenorrhea. Which oral medication will be prescribed that has the ability to provide physiological actions on the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progestins
- C. Naproxen
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Progestins are prescribed for dysmenorrhea as they help reduce menstrual pain by inhibiting ovulation and decreasing the production of prostaglandins. Estrogen (Choice A) is not typically used alone in dysmenorrhea treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Naproxen (Choice C) and Ibuprofen (Choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea, but they do not directly affect the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function like progestins do.
A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?
- A. Bronze-colored skin
- B. Decreased iron
- C. Normochromic erythrocytes
- D. Aplastic bone marrow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronze-colored skin.' Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by excess iron deposition, leading to bronze-colored skin. This occurs due to the abnormal accumulation of iron in tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sideroblastic anemia does not typically present with decreased iron levels, normochromic erythrocytes, or aplastic bone marrow.
A patient presents with a rash from poison ivy. The nurse knows that this is which type of hypersensitivity?
- A. Type I
- B. Type II
- C. Type III
- D. Type IV
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rash from poison ivy is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed cell-mediated immune responses involving T cells. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed onset, typically occurring 48-72 hours after exposure to the antigen. Choice A, Type I hypersensitivity reactions, are immediate hypersensitivity reactions mediated by IgE antibodies. Choices B and C, Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, involve antibody-mediated cytotoxicity and immune complex deposition, respectively, which are not characteristic of poison ivy-induced rashes.
A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?
- A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
- B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
- C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
- D. Estradiol (Estrace)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.
A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize about the risks associated with this therapy?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. HRT may improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can decrease the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
- D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.