Nokea
If a resident feels faint, a nursing assistant should
- A. Try to have the resident stand up before fainting occurs
- B. Have the resident lean forward and place her head between her knees
- C. Tighten the resident's clothing
- D. Leave the resident alone as soon as symptoms disappear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the resident lean forward and place her head between her knees can help increase blood flow to the brain, potentially preventing fainting. This position helps improve circulation and oxygenation to the brain, reducing the risk of fainting.
A: Trying to have the resident stand up before fainting occurs may lead to a fall and injury.
C: Tightening the resident's clothing restricts blood flow and does not address the underlying cause of fainting.
D: Leaving the resident alone as soon as symptoms disappear is unsafe as the cause of fainting should be addressed and monitored.
You may also like to solve these questions
To convert ounces to milliliters the nursing assistant should multiply by
- A. 30
- B. 20
- C. 60
- D. 15
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To convert ounces to milliliters, the nursing assistant should multiply by 30. This is because 1 fluid ounce is equivalent to approximately 30 milliliters. By multiplying the number of ounces by 30, you can accurately convert the volume to milliliters. Choice B (20) and Choice D (15) are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct conversion rate of ounces to milliliters. Choice C (60) is also incorrect as it is the inverse of the correct conversion rate, leading to an inaccurate result.
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Residents' hair should be handled gently because hair can be pulled out when combing or brushing it.
- B. Residents' hair should be combed or brushed into childish hairstyles because they look cute on elderly people.
- C. Nursing assistants should cut residents' hair when it gets long and when residents request it.
- D. Pediculosis (lice) cannot spread quickly.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Residents' hair should be handled gently to avoid pulling it out while combing or brushing. This is important for maintaining their comfort and preventing hair loss. Choice B is incorrect as hairstyles should be chosen based on residents' preferences and comfort, not based on looking cute. Choice C is incorrect as cutting residents' hair should be done by a professional hairdresser, not by nursing assistants. Choice D is incorrect as pediculosis (lice) can indeed spread quickly if not treated promptly and properly.
While conducting an EKG on your post-myocardial infarction patient, you note the presence of consistently wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms in duration. What does this most likely indicate?
- A. An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block
- B. A complete heart block indicating no relationship between the atria and ventricles
- C. The patient is likely suffering from a myocardial infarction currently
- D. The patient has a congenital heart defect and should not require emergency care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block. Wide QRS complexes (>120 ms) suggest delayed ventricular depolarization, which can be caused by bundle branch blocks. In the context of a post-myocardial infarction patient, this is a common finding due to damage to the conduction system.
Summary:
B: A complete heart block is characterized by a lack of communication between the atria and ventricles, leading to a different EKG pattern.
C: Wide QRS complexes do not directly indicate a current myocardial infarction; other EKG changes would be seen.
D: Wide QRS complexes are not typically associated with congenital heart defects in this scenario, and emergency care may still be necessary.
You are preparing to initiate a rapid sequence intubation on a pediatric patient who is exhibiting a borderline hypotensive state with a decreased level of consciousness and hypoventilation. He is quickly becoming hypoxic with a SpO2 of 77% and a delayed capillary refill. Which medication would be most effective in sedating this patient for the procedure?
- A. Succinylcholine
- B. Midazolam
- C. Ketamine
- D. Propofol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ketamine. Ketamine is the most effective choice for sedating this pediatric patient for rapid sequence intubation due to its properties of providing sedation, analgesia, and maintenance of airway reflexes. Its rapid onset and short duration of action make it ideal for this situation. Additionally, ketamine can help maintain the patient's blood pressure and respiratory drive, which is crucial in a borderline hypotensive state with hypoventilation.
Succinylcholine (A) is a paralytic agent and does not provide sedation or analgesia, so it would not address the patient's need for sedation. Midazolam (B) and Propofol (D) are sedatives but may cause respiratory depression and hypotension, which could worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, they are not the most appropriate choices in this scenario.
Under what condition is wearing artificial nails in a long-term care facility acceptable?
- A. They may be worn as long as the nails are clean, short, and filed.
- B. They should not be worn in care facilities.
- C. They should be worn only at special events at facilities.
- D. They may be worn as long as hands are washed frequently.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: They should not be worn in care facilities. Artificial nails can harbor bacteria and pose infection risks in long-term care settings. They may also interfere with proper hand hygiene practices. Choice A is incorrect because clean, short, and filed artificial nails still pose infection risks. Choice C is incorrect because wearing artificial nails only at special events does not address the overall infection risk. Choice D is incorrect as frequent hand washing alone may not eliminate the risks associated with artificial nails.