If bottle-feeding a neonate with cleft lip and cleft palate, the nipple should be
- A. shorter than normal size
- B. normal size for gestation
- C. longer than normal size
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Longer nipples accommodate structural anomalies, facilitating feeding.
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What question is most important for the nurse to ask a patient who presents with pelvic pain for the past year?
- A. Is the pain associated with having a bowel movement or passing urine?
- B. Have you had any unexplained weight loss?
- C. Have you tried taking ibuprofen or acetaminophen?
- D. Do you have many sexual partners?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because determining if the pain is associated with bowel movements or urination can help identify potential causes such as gastrointestinal or genitourinary issues. This information can guide further assessment and treatment.
Choice B is incorrect as unexplained weight loss is not directly related to pelvic pain assessment. Choice C is incorrect as asking about pain relief medication does not address the underlying cause of the pelvic pain. Choice D is incorrect as the number of sexual partners is not the most relevant question when assessing pelvic pain unless specific symptoms suggest a sexually transmitted infection.
The drug of choice to treat a gonorrhea infection is
- A. penicillin G (Pfizerpen).
- B. tetracycline (Achromycin).
- C. ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
- D. acyclovir (Zovirax).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Gonorrhea is caused by a bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
2. Over time, Neisseria gonorrhoeae has developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline.
3. Ceftriaxone is the recommended treatment due to its effectiveness against resistant strains.
4. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea.
Summary:
- Penicillin and tetracycline are no longer effective due to resistance.
- Ceftriaxone is the current drug of choice for gonorrhea treatment.
- Acyclovir is not used for bacterial infections like gonorrhea.
Infants delivered by elective cesarean section are at increased risk for
- A. neonatal jaundice
- B. low birth weight
- C. neonatal respiratory distress
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infants delivered via elective cesarean section may experience delayed lung fluid clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory distress.
The nurse is describing the size and shape of the nonpregnant uterus to a patient. Which is an accurate description?
- A. C M U S N T O
- B. The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a pear.
- C. The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a cantaloup
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems like there may be an error in the question provided. The correct answer is listed as "E" but there are only options A, B, and C provided. Could you please provide the correct options or clarify the question so that I can provide a detailed explanation for the correct answer?
You are taking care of a patient who has had a colporrhaphy. Which option would indicate a priority assessment during the postoperative period?
- A. Documentation of a pessary in the operative procedure notes by the physician
- B. Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician
- C. Use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy in the postoperative period
- D. Order for removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician. This is a priority assessment because leaving the vaginal packing in place for too long can lead to complications such as infection or tissue damage. It is important to follow the physician's orders for timely removal to prevent these risks.
A: Documentation of a pessary in the operative notes is important for accuracy but not a priority assessment in the postoperative period.
C: The use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy is not directly related to the immediate postoperative care of a colporrhaphy patient and is not a priority assessment in this context.
D: The removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure is important but not as time-sensitive as the removal of vaginal packing. It can be done at a later stage without immediate risk to the patient.
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