The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should
- A. draw blood from the left arm.
- B. take blood pressures from the left arm.
- C. start a new intravenous line in the left lower arm.
- D. auscultate the left arm for a bruit and palpate for a thrill.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because after arteriovenous fistula implantation, it is essential to assess for the presence of a bruit (audible sound caused by turbulent blood flow) and thrill (vibratory sensation) in the access site, which indicates proper functioning of the fistula. This assessment ensures that blood is flowing adequately through the newly created access for dialysis or other procedures. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the fistula arm can lead to complications such as clot formation or damage to the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the same arm is contraindicated to avoid compromising the newly created fistula. Thus, auscultating for a bruit and palpating for a thrill are the appropriate nursing actions in this scenario.
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Continuous venovenous hemofiltration is used to
- A. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
- B. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
- C. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
- D. combine ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) primarily removes fluids and solutes through the process of convection. In CVVH, blood flows through a filter where hydrostatic pressure drives plasma water and solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This process mimics the natural filtration that occurs in the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect because CVVH does not specifically target plasma water only but also removes solutes. Choice C is incorrect because CVVH does not involve adding dialysate to remove plasma water and solutes. Choice D is incorrect because while CVVH may involve ultrafiltration and convection, it does not typically include dialysis as a primary mechanism for solute removal.
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury who is being treated with hemodialysis. The patient asks if he will need dialysis for the rest of his life. Which of the following would be the best response?
- A. “Unfortunately, kidney injury is not reversible; it is permanent.”
- B. “Kidney function usually returns within 2 weeks.”
- C. “You will know for sure if you start urinating a lot all at once.”
- D. “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.” This response is the best choice as it provides a balanced and accurate explanation to the patient. Here's the rationale:
1. Hemodialysis is often used as a temporary measure to support kidney function while allowing time for the kidneys to recover.
2. Acute kidney injury can be reversible in some cases, especially if the underlying cause is identified and treated promptly.
3. Recovery time varies for each individual, and it can indeed take several months for kidney function to improve.
4. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
- A is overly pessimistic and does not consider the potential for recovery.
- B provides a specific timeframe that may not be accurate for all patients.
- C is not a reliable indicator of kidney function recovery and may lead to confusion.
The critical care nurse knows that in critically ill patients, renal dysfunction
- A. is a very rare problem.
- B. affects nearly two thirds of patients.
- C. has a low mortality rate once renal replacement therapy has been initiated.
- D. has little effect on morbidity, mortality, or quality of life.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Renal dysfunction is common in critically ill patients due to various factors like sepsis, hypotension, and nephrotoxic medications. This affects nearly two thirds of patients, making it a significant issue in critical care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A is wrong because renal dysfunction is not rare in critically ill patients. C is incorrect as renal replacement therapy does not guarantee low mortality rates. D is inaccurate as renal dysfunction can have a significant impact on morbidity, mortality, and quality of life in critically ill patients.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving benzodiazepine intermittently. What is the best way to administer such drugs?
- A. Medicate around the clock, rather than as needed, to en sure constant sedation.
- B. Administer the medications through the feeding tube to prevent complications.
- C. Give the highest allowable dose for the greatest effect.
- D. Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedat ion scale.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale. This approach ensures individualized dosing based on the patient's response, minimizing the risk of over-sedation or under-treatment. It allows for careful monitoring and adjustment of dosage to achieve the desired level of sedation while avoiding adverse effects.
A: Administering medication around the clock may lead to unnecessary sedation and increased risk of side effects.
B: Administering medications through a feeding tube is not recommended for benzodiazepines as it may affect absorption and increase the risk of complications.
C: Giving the highest allowable dose without considering individual response can result in excessive sedation and adverse effects.
The charge nurse is supervising the care of four critical ca re patients being monitored using invasive hemodynamic modalities. Which patient should t he charge nurse evaluate first?
- A. A patient in cardiogenic shock with a cardiac output (CabOirb). coofm 2/te.0st L/min
- B. A patient with a pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PA P) of 20 mm Hg
- C. A hypovolemic patient with a central venous pressure (CVP) of 6 mm Hg
- D. A patient with a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 10 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the patient in cardiogenic shock with a cardiac output of 2.0 L/min is experiencing a life-threatening condition that requires immediate evaluation. Cardiogenic shock indicates poor cardiac function, which can lead to multi-organ failure. Monitoring cardiac output is crucial in managing these patients.
Choice B is incorrect because a pulmonary artery systolic pressure of 20 mm Hg is within normal range and does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition.
Choice C is incorrect because a CVP of 6 mm Hg in a hypovolemic patient may indicate volume depletion, but it is not as urgent as the patient in cardiogenic shock.
Choice D is incorrect because a PAOP of 10 mm Hg is within normal range and does not suggest an immediate critical condition.