Nokea
If the nurse collects the following data, which assessment finding best indicates the presence of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Rapid bilateral pupillary response to light
- B. Tympanic temperature of 97.9°F (36.6°C)
- C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes +2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure (e.g., 150/90 mm Hg) is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, often part of Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations), indicating brain compression.
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The most common side effect of tocolytic agents is:
- A. Vaginal bleeding.
- B. Abdominal pain.
- C. Nausea,vomiting.
- D. Palpitations.
- E. Oliguria.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tocolytics such as beta-agonists commonly cause palpitations due to their sympathomimetic effects. Other side effects are less frequent or not primarily associated.
Pregnancy induced hypertension is diagnosed when:
- A. Hypertension is encountered after 20 weeks of gestation.
- B. Hypertension gets worse in first week of pregnancy.
- C. Hypertension is not controlled with aldomet.
- D. Hypertension gives rise to left ventricular failure.
- E. Blood urea & creatine levels in blood are abnormal.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (gestational hypertension) is diagnosed when hypertension (BP ≥140/90 mmHg) appears after 20 weeks gestation without proteinuria or other preeclampsia features.
A primigravida is in second stage of labour for the past two hours. Fetal head is at +1 station. Inspite of effective uterine contractions,mother is unable to push as she is exhausted. What will be the next step in her management:
- A. Wait for another one hour.
- B. Give sedation to the mother.
- C. Shift her for emergency section.
- D. Instrumental delivery.
- E. Call the anaesthetist for regional anaesthesia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Instrumental delivery (e.g. forceps or vacuum) is indicated for prolonged second stage due to maternal exhaustion provided the fetal head is engaged (+1 station). Cesarean section is considered if instrumental delivery is not feasible.
Organogenesis is complete at:
- A. 2 weeks after ovulation.
- B. 6 weeks after ovulation.
- C. 8 weeks after ovulation.
- D. 18 weeks after ovulation.
- E. 20 weeks after ovulation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Organogenesis the process of organ formation occurs during the embryonic period primarily between weeks 3 to 8 after ovulation (or 5 to 10 weeks gestational age). By 8 weeks post-ovulation major organ systems are formed making this the correct answer. Earlier or later weeks do not align with this developmental milestone.
Which response by the nurse best explains why aspirin is preferred to acetaminophen (Tylenol) in the treatment of rheumatic fever?
- A. Aspirin controls fever better.
- B. Aspirin prevents infections.
- C. Aspirin relieves joint inflammation.
- D. Aspirin prevents cardiac enlargement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin is preferred in rheumatic fever due to its anti-inflammatory properties, which relieve joint inflammation and pain associated with polyarthritis. Acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, making aspirin more effective.