In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes
- B. Mumps
- C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
- D. Testicular trauma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.
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A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he experiencing?
- A. IgE-mediated
- B. Tissue-specific
- C. Immune complex
- D. Cell-mediated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The father's immune reaction to poison ivy is an example of cell-mediated immunity, specifically a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, sensitized T cells react to antigens, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. IgE-mediated reactions involve antibodies of the IgE class, commonly seen in allergic responses like anaphylaxis. Tissue-specific reactions target specific organs or tissues. Immune complex reactions involve immune complexes formed by antigens and antibodies that can deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation.
What is responsible for initiating clonal selection?
- A. B cells
- B. T cells
- C. Antigens
- D. Lymphocytes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antigens are the correct answer as they are the molecules that trigger the immune response by binding to specific B or T cells. This binding activates these cells, leading to their proliferation and differentiation to fight off the antigen. B cells and T cells are the responders to antigens, not the initiators of clonal selection. Lymphocytes is a broad term encompassing both B and T cells, so it is not the specific factor responsible for initiating clonal selection.
A 67-year-old man is receiving androgen therapy for osteoporosis. What laboratory test should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- D. Cholesterol levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During androgen therapy, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction. Androgens can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to monitor enzymes such as ALT and AST. While blood glucose levels and cholesterol levels are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the primary focus during androgen therapy for osteoporosis. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) monitoring is more relevant in the context of prostate health and cancer screening, not specifically during androgen therapy for osteoporosis.
A patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when a patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism is an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy has been associated with an elevated risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring cardiovascular health is crucial during testosterone therapy. The other choices are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not primarily linked to liver dysfunction (choice A), prostate cancer (choice C), or bone fractures (choice D).
In osteoporosis, what is the expected therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)?
- A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It decreases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in strengthening bones, reducing the risk of fractures, and improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents bone loss. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily decrease the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.