In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?
- A. Withdraw ten units of regular insulin from the 70/30 vial
- B. Withhold the dose until regular insulin is available
- C. Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withhold
- D. Pull up 30 units from the 70/30 vial but only administer 10 units
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed topiramate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Cognitive impairment
- B. Weight gain
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary.
A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
- A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
- B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
- C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
- D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed dulaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Dulaglutide, a medication commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes, can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are potential concerns in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with dulaglutide use. Pancreatitis is a serious adverse effect of some diabetes medications, but it is not a common side effect of dulaglutide.
A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The health care provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?
- A. The ciliary muscle contracts increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
- B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
- C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
- D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye.