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In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?
- A. Neurological status
- B. Cardiac status
- C. Respiratory status
- D. Gastrointestinal status
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
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The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
- A. Diminished bowel sounds
- B. Loss of appetite
- C. A cold, pale lower leg
- D. Tachypnea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.
Which of these findings would the nurse most closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
- B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
- C. Hypoactivity
- D. A heart rate between 140 to 160
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips is a classic sign of anemia in infants, indicating a lack of sufficient red blood cells. This finding is due to decreased hemoglobin levels, which causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to anemia in infants. While a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL may be within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant, the presence of pale mucosa is a more indicative sign of anemia.
The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Hold the tube feeding and notify the provider
- B. Administer the tube feeding as scheduled
- C. Irrigate the tube with diet cola soda
- D. Apply intermittent suction to the feeding tube
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.
A client with a history of pancreatitis should avoid which of the following food choices?
- A. Noodles
- B. Vegetable soup
- C. Baked fish
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
When speaking with a group of teens, which side effect of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?
- A. Mouth sores
- B. Fatigue
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hair loss
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hair loss is the correct answer. Teens are often more concerned about hair loss because of its visible impact and social implications. While mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, hair loss tends to be a significant concern for teens due to its effect on self-image and confidence.