Nokea
In a client with cirrhosis admitted with jaundice and ascites, which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
- B. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
- C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with impaired liver function and can lead to mental status changes. Serum bilirubin (Choice A) is elevated in cirrhosis but not as concerning for acute intervention as high ammonia levels. Serum albumin (Choice B) and serum sodium (Choice D) levels are important in cirrhotic patients but are not as directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy as ammonia levels.
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A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.
A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
- B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
- C. Insert a nasogastric tube
- D. Prepare the client for surgery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.
A client with a head injury is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Widening pulse pressure
- B. Sudden drop in heart rate
- C. A decrease in urine output
- D. Elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the body's compensatory mechanisms lead to an elevation in blood pressure and a widening pulse pressure. This occurs due to the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion. Therefore, elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure are classic signs of increased ICP and necessitate immediate attention. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a widening pulse pressure, sudden drop in heart rate, or decreased urine output are not specific indicators of increased ICP.
The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client with severe constipation. Which position is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
- B. Left lateral with the right leg flexed
- C. Sims' position with the right leg flexed
- D. Prone position with the head turned to the side
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sims' position with the right leg flexed is the most appropriate position for administering an enema to a client with severe constipation. This position helps in promoting the flow of the enema solution into the rectum and facilitates the evacuation of stool. Supine position with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema as it does not facilitate the flow of the solution. Left lateral position with the right leg flexed (Choice B) is not the best choice for administering an enema. Prone position with the head turned to the side (Choice D) is also not suitable for administering an enema as it does not assist in the proper administration and retention of the solution.
A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/7.50 mg. His vital signs are elevated from the previous hour: temperature 97.8 F, heart rate 102 beats per minute, respiration 20 breaths per minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left leg is larger than the right. Preoperatively, clopidogrel was prescribed for a history of previous peripheral stents. Another nurse is holding manual pressure on the femoral arterial access site which may be leaking into the abdomen. What data is needed to make this report complete?
- A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
- B. The surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
- C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
- D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immediate evaluation by the surgeon is necessary due to the possibility of an internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition. Choice A is incorrect as lung status and oxygen saturation are not the priority in this situation. Choice C is not relevant to the current urgent issue. Choice D, while providing additional history, is not pertinent to the immediate concern of a potential internal hemorrhage post angioplasty and stent placement.