Nokea
In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
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A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum sodium level.
- B. Serum potassium level.
- C. Serum calcium level.
- D. Serum glucose level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next when administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) connected to suction?
- A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes.
- B. Flush the tube with water.
- C. Administer the medications as prescribed.
- D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After ensuring the correct placement of the NGT, the nurse should flush the tube with water to prevent any obstructions and ensure proper medication delivery. Flushing the tube is essential before, after, and in between each medication administration. Clamping the tube for 20 minutes should be done after all medications are administered to prevent clogging. Administering medications as prescribed and preparing medications by crushing tablets and dissolving them in sterile water should only be done after the tube has been appropriately flushed to maintain its patency and effectiveness.
The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new diagnosis of asthma. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should use my inhaler as soon as I begin to feel short of breath.
- B. I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack.
- C. I should use my inhaler 30 minutes before exercise.
- D. I should rinse my mouth after using my inhaler.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack' (B) indicates a need for further teaching. It is important for clients to use their inhaler as prescribed, which may include regular use to prevent asthma attacks. Choice A is correct because using the inhaler when feeling short of breath can help manage asthma symptoms. Choice C is also correct as using the inhaler before exercise can prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice D is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps prevent oral thrush, a potential side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Therefore, option B is the most concerning statement that needs clarification.
A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg · 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Flushing of the skin
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.