Nokea
In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. BPH
- C. Chronic renal failure
- D. Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.
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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?
- A. "I will report to the doctor if I have a slow heart rate."
- B. "The medicine will leave a bitter or metallic taste in my mouth."
- C. "I will report urinary urgency and incontinence."
- D. "The medication is given in two doses every day."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic method for identifying lung cancer in its early stages?
- A. CT scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Biopsy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A biopsy is the most appropriate method for diagnosing lung cancer in its early stages. A biopsy involves taking a small tissue sample from the lung for examination under a microscope. This method provides a definitive diagnosis by identifying cancerous cells. CT scans, MRIs, and X-rays can help detect abnormalities in the lungs, but a biopsy is necessary to confirm the presence of lung cancer. CT scans offer detailed images of the lung's structure, MRIs use magnetic fields for imaging soft tissues, and X-rays provide a basic view of the lungs, but none of these imaging techniques can definitively confirm the presence of cancer without a biopsy.
A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?
- A. White blood cell count with differential
- B. RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
- C. INR and aPTT
- D. d-dimer and C-reactive protein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.
A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. Use of antihypertensive medications
- C. History of hypertension
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates potentiate the hypotensive effects of tadalafil, leading to a potentially life-threatening drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because antihypertensive medications, history of hypertension, and history of peptic ulcer disease are not critical contraindications for tadalafil use. While caution may be needed in patients with certain conditions, the highest priority is addressing the interaction with nitrates.