In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
- A. ability to speak
- B. ability to hear
- C. oxygen saturation
- D. adventitious breath sounds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an emergency situation, assessing the client's ability to speak is crucial in determining airway obstruction. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed. Choices B and C, assessing the ability to hear and oxygen saturation, are not directly indicative of an airway obstruction. Choice D, adventitious breath sounds, may be present in conditions like asthma or pneumonia but are not specific to determining an airway obstruction.
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Delegation of tasks to appropriate personnel allows the nurse to:
- A. ensure tasks are appropriately distributed.
- B. keep other members of the team productive.
- C. maintain tight control of all aspects of the workflow.
- D. recognize the importance of team members' roles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Delegating tasks to appropriate personnel is essential for a nurse to keep other team members productive. By assigning tasks that align with the specific roles and responsibilities of team members, the nurse can enhance work effectiveness and efficiency. Option A is incorrect because delegation is not primarily about ensuring tasks are evenly distributed but rather about utilizing team members' skills effectively. Option C is incorrect as maintaining tight control of all aspects of the workflow can hinder teamwork and limit individual growth. Option D is incorrect because effective delegation involves empowering team members to make decisions within their scope of practice, rather than solely recognizing the importance of their roles.
Which medication might the healthcare provider prescribe if the client expresses discomfort with being in the enclosed space of a CT scanner?
- A. Valium (diazepam)
- B. Clozaril (clozapine)
- C. Catapres (clonidine)
- D. Lasix (furosemide)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Valium (diazepam) is a sedative that might be prescribed to help a client who feels uncomfortable in the confined space of a CT scanner. Diazepam can help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, making the scanning process more tolerable. Clozaril (clozapine), Catapres (clonidine), and Lasix (furosemide) are not sedatives and wouldn't be appropriate for alleviating discomfort related to being in an enclosed space. Clozaril is an antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, Catapres is a blood pressure medication, and Lasix is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, so they are not indicated for this situation.
How should an infant be secured in a car?
- A. To hold the infant while sitting in the middle of the back seat of the car
- B. To place the infant in the front seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat if the car has passenger-side air bags
- C. To place the infant in a booster seat in the front seat with the shoulder and lap belts secured around the infant
- D. To secure the infant in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The recommended way to secure an infant in a car is to place them in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat. Option A is incorrect because infants should never be held while in a moving vehicle due to safety concerns. Option B is incorrect because placing an infant in the front seat with a rear-facing safety seat can be risky if the car has passenger-side airbags. Option C is incorrect as booster seats are not suitable for infants. Therefore, the correct choice is to secure the infant in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat.
A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.
Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?
- A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
- B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
- C. intractable diarrhea
- D. tendon rupture
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.