In common variable immunodeficiency (CVID):
- A. B cells are totally absent
- B. There is increased incidence of autoimmune disorders in families of affected members
- C. IgA levels are characteristically normal
- D. T lymphocytes are usually affected
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CVID is associated with an increased incidence of autoimmune disorders in families of affected individuals.
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The routine investigation of a 4-year-old with an uncomplicated UTI involves:
- A. Renal ultrasound scan
- B. Micturating cystogram
- C. DMSA (dimercaptosuccinic acid) scan
- D. DTP scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A renal ultrasound scan is a standard initial investigation for a child with an uncomplicated UTI to assess for structural abnormalities.
The main risk factor for developing deep vein thrombosis is:
- A. Prolonged immobility
- B. Age
- C. Obesity
- D. Family history
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged immobility, such as during long flights or post-surgery, is a significant risk factor for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Fetal distress is indicated by:
- A. Meconium staining of liquor
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because bradycardia is a key indicator of fetal distress. The other options (a, b, c, e) are less specific or not primary indicators.
It is reasonable to suspect child abuse in the following situations:
- A. 6-month old with a large scalp bruise
- B. 7-year-old girl who is found masturbating
- C. 2-year old with multiple bruises of different ages over the shins
- D. 3-month old with failure to thrive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a large scalp bruise in a 6-month-old is highly suspicious for abuse. The other options (b-e) are less indicative of abuse.
A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client’s heart rate is 48 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Document the finding in the chart.
- B. Initiate external pacing.
- C. Assess the client’s medications.
- D. Administer 1 mg of atropine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A heart rate of 48 beats/min (bradycardia) in an older adult with multiple chronic diseases may be due to medication side effects. Assessing the client’s medications is the first step to determine if any drugs are contributing to the bradycardia.