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In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
- A. it is not possible to determine the GFR.
- B. the BUN may be used to determine renal function.
- C. an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio can be used.
- D. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because if a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate the GFR. This is typically done using the patient's serum creatinine level, age, sex, and race. It is a validated method when direct measurement is not feasible.
A: Incorrect. It is still possible to estimate GFR using formulas when 24-hour urine collection is not possible.
B: Incorrect. BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function.
C: Incorrect. BUN/Creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by other factors.
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The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
- A. sepsis.
- B. fluid overload.
- C. medications.
- D. hemodynamic instability.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is a leading cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response leading to kidney damage. Fluid overload (B) can contribute but is not the primary cause. Medications (C) and hemodynamic instability (D) can also lead to acute kidney injury but are not as common as sepsis in critically ill patients.
A patient with type 1 diabetes who is receiving a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion via an insulin pump contacts the clinic to report mechanical failure of the infusion pump. The nurse instructs the patient to begin monitoring for signs of:
- A. adrenal insufficiency.
- B. diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state.
- D. hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: diabetic ketoacidosis. When an insulin pump fails, the patient may experience a sudden decrease in insulin delivery, leading to a potential rise in blood glucose levels. This can trigger diabetic ketoacidosis, characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis. Monitoring for signs such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fruity breath odor, and rapid breathing is crucial.
Incorrect choices:
A: Adrenal insufficiency is not directly related to insulin pump failure.
C: Hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state is more common in type 2 diabetes and typically occurs with extreme hyperglycemia, not sudden pump failure.
D: Hypoglycemia is less likely with pump failure due to decreased insulin delivery.
A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include
- A. administration of 3% normal saline.
- B. administration of exogenous vasopressin.
- C. fluid restriction.
- D. low sodium diet.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium.
Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels.
Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention.
Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.
A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is being transitioned from an infusion of intravenous (IV) regular insulin to an intensive insulin therapy regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart. How should the nurse manage this transition in insulin delivery?
- A. Administer the insulin glargine and continue the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours.
- B. Administer the insulin glargine and discontinue the IV infusion in several hours.
- C. Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the insulin aspart with the next meal.
- D. Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime. This is the correct approach because insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night. By administering it at bedtime, it mimics the basal insulin secretion in a person without diabetes. This helps maintain stable blood sugar levels overnight.
Choice A is incorrect because continuing the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours alongside insulin glargine is unnecessary and may lead to insulin overdose. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV infusion in several hours without administering the long-acting insulin can lead to inadequate insulin coverage. Choice C is incorrect because insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given with meals, not as a basal insulin replacement at bedtime.
Acute adrenal crisis is caused by
- A. acute renal failure.
- B. deficiency of corticosteroids.
- C. high doses of corticosteroids.
- D. overdose of testosterone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.