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In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to
- A. sexual arousal.
- B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
- C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
- D. decreased cortisol levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.
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The college health nurse is providing health education for freshmen. Which of the following pieces of information about immunizations is applicable to individuals of this age group?
- A. The oral polio vaccine should be updated.
- B. The yearly administration of flu vaccine is recommended.
- C. The tetanus toxoid should be within 2 years.
- D. The administration of hepatitis A vaccine is mandatory.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For freshmen in college, the yearly administration of the flu vaccine is recommended. This is important to protect against seasonal influenza outbreaks that can spread rapidly in close living quarters such as dormitories. Choice A is incorrect as oral polio vaccine is not typically given to individuals of this age group. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid boosters are usually recommended every 10 years, not within 2 years. Choice D is incorrect as the administration of the hepatitis A vaccine is not mandatory for all individuals in this age group.
A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.
A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.
A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?
- A. Increased libido
- B. Decreased muscle mass
- C. Breast tenderness
- D. Increased aggression
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.
A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.