Nokea
In laryngeal stridor, the noise is more marked during
- A. Inspiration
- B. Expiration
- C. Feeding
- D. Play
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspiration. Laryngeal stridor is caused by narrowed or obstructed airway, resulting in noisy breathing. During inspiration, the air is drawn through the narrowed larynx, causing the stridor sound. During expiration, the air is leaving the body, so the noise may not be as prominent. Choices C and D, feeding and play, are unrelated to the respiratory process and do not affect the presence of laryngeal stridor.
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The AGACNP is covering an internal medicine service and is paged by staff to see a patient who has just pulled out his ET tube. After the situation has been assessed, it is clear that the patient will go into respiratory failure and likely die if he is not reintubated. The patient is awake and alert and is adamant that he does not want to be reintubated. The AGACNP is concerned that there is not enough time to establish a DNRthe patient needs to be reintubated immediately and already is becoming obtunded. Which ethical principles are in conflict here?
- A. Veracity and beneficence
- B. Beneficence and nonmalfeasance
- C. Autonomy and beneficence
- D. Justice and autonomy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autonomy and beneficence. Autonomy refers to the patient's right to make their own decisions regarding their healthcare. In this case, the patient is refusing reintubation, exercising his autonomy. However, beneficence, the duty to act in the patient's best interest, also comes into play as the patient's refusal could lead to respiratory failure and death. The conflict arises from balancing the patient's autonomy with the healthcare provider's duty to provide beneficial care.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately capture the ethical conflict present in the scenario. Veracity (A) refers to truthfulness, which is not the primary issue here. Nonmalfeasance (B) is the duty to do no harm, which is not directly relevant to the conflict between the patient's autonomy and the need for beneficial care. Justice (D) relates to fairness in resource allocation and is not the primary issue in this case.
Hepatic encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome seen in patients with chronic liver disease its presentation may range from mild personality changes, to psychosis, to coma. The primary chemical mediators of hepatic encephalopathy include all of the following except
- A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
- B. Ammonia
- C. False neurotransmitters
- D. Serotonin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serotonin. Serotonin is not a primary chemical mediator of hepatic encephalopathy. The main chemical mediators involved in hepatic encephalopathy are A: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), B: Ammonia, and C: False neurotransmitters. GABA plays a role in inhibiting neurotransmission, ammonia is a key factor in the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy, and false neurotransmitters are produced due to altered amino acid metabolism in the liver. Serotonin is not a key player in the development of hepatic encephalopathy, hence it is the correct answer.
Which of the following is an indication for forceps delivery?
- A. Cephalopelvic disproportion
- B. Occipito posterior position
- C. Breech presentation
- D. Placenta abruption
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Occipito posterior position. Forceps delivery may be indicated in this situation to help rotate the baby's head and facilitate delivery. Occipito posterior position can lead to prolonged labor and fetal distress, making forceps delivery necessary for a safe delivery.
Incorrect choices:
A: Cephalopelvic disproportion is not an indication for forceps delivery as it refers to mismatch between the size of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis.
C: Breech presentation typically requires a different approach such as cesarean section rather than forceps delivery.
D: Placenta abruption, a medical emergency, would not be managed with forceps delivery but rather require immediate intervention to prevent harm to both the mother and baby.
Ms. OReilly is a 69-year-old patient who is having a bowel resection for a malignant tumor of the right colon. She has several chronic medical conditions and takes numerous daily medications, including metoprolol 100 mg daily, warfarin 5 mg daily, vitamin E 200 units daily, and metformin 1000 mg bid. Which of the following regimens is the most appropriate approach to managing her medications preoperatively?
- A. All medications should be taken up to and including the morning of surgery
- B. The beta blocker may be taken up until the day of surgery, metformin should be held the day of surgery, and the remaining medications should be d/c’d 5–7 days before surgery
- C. Warfarin should be held 5 days before surgery; all other medications may be taken through the morning of surgery
- D. Metformin should be held if the morning blood sugar is < 200 mg/dL; all other medications except warfarin may be given the day of surgery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Metformin should be held if the morning blood sugar is < 200 mg/dL to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis postoperatively.
2. Warfarin should be held 5 days before surgery to prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure.
3. Beta blocker (metoprolol) can be continued on the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension.
4. Vitamin E can be continued as it does not have significant interactions or adverse effects in this scenario.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need to hold metformin and warfarin appropriately.
- Choice B is incorrect as it discontinues medications too early and does not address metformin management.
- Choice C is incorrect as it only addresses warfarin and does not consider metformin or other medications.
- Choice D is the most appropriate approach as it addresses the specific considerations for each medication based on their effects and interactions.
In deep transverse arrest,
- A. The occipito-frontal diameter is caught at the bispinous diameter of the pelvic outlet
- B. The sub-occipito-bregmatic diameter is caught at the bispinous diameter of pelvic outlet
- C. The resulting outcome is usually a face to pubis delivery
- D. The sagittal suture is found at the oblique diameter of the pelvis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in deep transverse arrest, the sagittal suture of the fetal head is typically aligned with the oblique diameter of the pelvis, causing an obstruction in the descent of the baby. This alignment leads to a difficult labor scenario where the baby's head cannot pass through the pelvis due to the mismatch in diameters. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific anatomical alignment that characterizes deep transverse arrest. Choice A refers to occipito-frontal diameter, choice B refers to sub-occipito-bregmatic diameter, and choice C mentions a face to pubis delivery, which are not the defining features of deep transverse arrest.