Nokea
In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and swelling. This contradicts the statement that the mother has no complaints. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately states that the mother has no complaints. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any relevant information to address the question.
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The type of cord prolapse characterized by presence of the fetal umbilical cord alongside the presenting part is
- A. Occult umbilical cord prolapse
- B. Overt umbilical cord prolapse
- C. Funic cord prolapse
- D. Complete cord prolapse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Funic cord prolapse. Funic cord prolapse is characterized by the fetal umbilical cord being alongside the presenting part. This type of cord prolapse is a more specific term used to describe the exact position of the cord in relation to the presenting part.
The other choices are incorrect because:
- A: Occult umbilical cord prolapse refers to a hidden or concealed cord prolapse, where the cord is not visible externally.
- B: Overt umbilical cord prolapse is when the cord is visible externally before the presenting part.
- D: Complete cord prolapse implies that the entire cord has descended through the cervix before the presenting part, not just alongside it.
Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the specific positioning of the umbilical cord in relation to the presenting part during cord prolapse.
He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that
- A. Vasopressors are contraindicated in traumatic head injury
- B. Hypotension doubles the risk of mortality from traumatic head injury
- C. His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury
- D. Stabilizing the head injury is more important that identifying the cause of hypotension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury.
Rationale:
1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion.
2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow.
3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients.
Summary:
A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated.
B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context.
D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.
Prolonged second stage of labor in nulliparous women is labor for more than
- A. 1 hour
- B. 2 hours
- C. 4 hours
- D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 4 hours. This is based on the definition of prolonged second stage in nulliparous women, which is labor lasting more than 4 hours. This duration is considered abnormal and may lead to increased risk of maternal and fetal complications. Choice A (1 hour) is too short and does not meet the criteria for prolonged second stage. Choice B (2 hours) is also insufficient based on the established timeframe. Choice D (8 hours) exceeds the duration for prolonged second stage, indicating a more advanced stage of labor. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate timeframe for prolonged second stage in nulliparous women is 4 hours.
The presenting diameter in brow presentation is
- A. Submentobregmatic
- B. Suboccipitofrontal
- C. Occipitalfrontal
- D. Mentovertical
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the submentobregmatic diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is partially extended, causing the forehead (bregma) to be the presenting part. The submentobregmatic diameter is the distance between the chin (mentum) and the highest point of the forehead (bregma). This diameter is crucial for successful delivery in brow presentation as it is the smallest diameter that must pass through the maternal pelvis.
Summary of other choices:
B: Suboccipitofrontal - This diameter is not relevant in brow presentation as it involves the back of the head.
C: Occipitalfrontal - This diameter is the distance between the back of the head and the forehead, also not relevant in brow presentation.
D: Mentovertical - This diameter is the distance between the chin and the vertex of the head, not the forehead.
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except
- A. Cognitive ability
- B. Functional status
- C. Competency assessment
- D. Frailty score
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Cognitive ability is important for decision-making during surgery.
2. Functional status helps assess the patient's ability to recover post-surgery.
3. Competency assessment ensures the patient can consent to surgery.
4. Frailty score predicts surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.
5. Cognitive ability is not typically assessed preoperatively in the ACS/NSQIP guidelines.
Summary:
- A: Cognitive ability is not typically part of preoperative evaluation.
- B: Functional status is important for post-surgery recovery.
- C: Competency assessment is crucial for informed consent.
- D: Frailty score helps predict surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.