Nokea
In planning care for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus, what is the priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Deficient fluid volume related to dehydration
- B. Excess fluid volume related to edema
- C. Deficient knowledge related to fluid intake regimen
- D. Imbalanced nutrition, more than body requirements related to excess weight
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus is deficient fluid volume related to dehydration. Diabetes insipidus leads to excessive urination and fluid loss, which can result in dehydration. This diagnosis should take precedence as restoring fluid balance is crucial in managing this condition. Choices B, C, and D are less of a priority in this case. Excess fluid volume related to edema is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Deficient knowledge about fluid intake and imbalanced nutrition related to excess weight may be important but addressing the dehydration and fluid volume deficit is the most critical aspect in the immediate care of a child with diabetes insipidus.
You may also like to solve these questions
What should the nurse suggest to a parent asking for advice on managing their child's earache and fever?
- A. Applying a warm compress to the affected ear
- B. Giving the child a cold drink
- C. Administering acetaminophen
- D. Taking the child to the emergency department
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest applying a warm compress to the affected ear. This can help alleviate pain and discomfort associated with the earache. Giving a cold drink (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and is not a recommended treatment for earaches. Administering acetaminophen (Choice C) can help reduce fever but may not directly target the earache. Taking the child to the emergency department (Choice D) is usually not necessary for a common earache unless there are severe symptoms or complications present.
What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?
- A. corticosteroids
- B. antihypertensive agents
- C. long-term diuretics
- D. increased fluids to promote diuresis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.
A nurse plans to talk to the parents of a toddler about toilet training. What should the nurse explain is the most important factor in the process of toilet training?
- A. Parents' attitude towards it
- B. Child's motivation to remain dry
- C. Child's ability to sit independently on the toilet
- D. Parents' commitment to work on the toilet training
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial factor in successful toilet training is the parents' commitment to consistently work with their child. While parents' attitude and willingness are important, the key is their dedication to the process. The child's motivation and ability are also significant but rely heavily on parental guidance and support. Therefore, the correct choice is the parents' commitment to work on toilet training.
The nurse is caring for a child and family who just moved out of a dangerous neighborhood. Which of the following approaches is appropriate based on the family stress theory?
- A. Determining who the decision-maker is
- B. Assessing the child's coping abilities
- C. Exploring how a sibling feels
- D. Explaining procedures to a sibling
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the child's coping abilities is appropriate based on the family stress theory because it helps the nurse understand how well the child can manage and adapt to the stressors related to the move. This assessment can guide interventions to support the child's emotional well-being and adjustment. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to assessing the child's coping abilities and may not address the child's immediate needs during this stressful time.
Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?
- A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
- B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
- C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
- D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.