Nokea
In planning for Sonny's oxygen therapy, the nurse should consider which of the following, EXCEPT
- A. need for a humidifier.
- B. length of tubing .
- C. determine the age of Excel.
- D. manner of administering oxygen, continuous or intermittent.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse does not need to determine the age of Excel when planning for Sonny's oxygen therapy. This information is irrelevant to the specific care requirements of Sonny's oxygen therapy. Sonny's age, medical history, respiratory status, and oxygen needs are the key considerations in planning for his oxygen therapy. The nurse should focus on factors such as the need for a humidifier, length of tubing, and the manner of administering oxygen (continuous or intermittent) to ensure effective and safe delivery of oxygen therapy to Sonny.
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A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Ischemic stroke
- C. Hemorrhagic stroke
- D. Intracerebral hemorrhage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that partially resolved within 30 minutes is more consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) rather than an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary decreases in blood flow to a specific area of the brain, leading to transient neurological deficits that typically last for less than 24 hours. In this case, the symptoms partially resolving suggest a temporary and reversible ischemic event, characteristic of a TIA. Ischemic strokes involve more prolonged or permanent impairment due to blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding within the brain tissue or the surrounding membranes.
While Mrs. Mely is on TPN she suddenly complained of slight chest pain, dyspnea and appears cyanotic. You suspect that she is experiencing what possible IMMEDIATE complication?
- A. Sepsis due to IV 1ine
- B. Hyperglycemia.
- C. Air embolism
- D. Allergic reaction to TPN
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario - chest pain, dyspnea, and cyanosis - are indicative of a potential air embolism. Air embolism occurs when air enters the bloodstream, leading to blockages in blood vessels and impeding oxygen delivery to tissues. In patients receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) through intravenous lines, the risk of air embolism exists during line manipulations, disconnections, or improper priming of the tubing. The sudden onset of symptoms like chest pain and cyanosis in a patient on TPN should raise suspicion for an air embolism, as it requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as cardiac arrest or stroke.
The MOST significant contributory factor to the development of lung cancer is ________.
- A. being a cigarette smoker
- B. belonging to the male sex
- C. Being extremely obese
- D. age over 4 0years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most significant contributory factor to the development of lung cancer is being a cigarette smoker. Cigarette smoking is directly linked to approximately 85% of lung cancer cases. The harmful substances in tobacco smoke, such as carcinogens, damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer over time. Smokers are at a significantly higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to non-smokers. Therefore, being a cigarette smoker is the primary and most influential risk factor for developing lung cancer.
A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Cushing's syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
What drug should the nurse prepare for administration to reverse all signs of toxicity?
- A. Digibind (Digoxin)
- B. Atropine sulfate
- C. Naloxone (Narcan)
- D. Diazepam (Valium)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone, also known by the brand name Narcan, is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, sedation, and other signs of toxicity. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse these effects, restoring the patient's breathing and consciousness. This makes it the appropriate choice for reversing all signs of toxicity related to opioids. Digibind (Digoxin) is used to reverse toxicity from digoxin specifically. Atropine sulfate is used for bradycardia. Diazepam (Valium) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle relaxation, not for reversing toxicity.