Nokea
In Singapore, MSF-funded disability services for preschool children:
- A. Serve those with congenital, physical, sensory, developmental, and behavioural disorders
- B. Are all centre-based
- C. Provided by charity and public hospitals only
- D. Are overseen by the Early Childhood Developmental Agency (EDCA)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: MSF-funded services cover a broad range of disabilities in preschoolers, aligning with Singapore's inclusive disability framework.
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The wife of a client newly diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'My husband was well adjusted until a month ago, and then, after a lot of work stress, he got sick. What can I expect? Will he be this sick for the rest of his life?' What information can the nurse provide about prognosis?
- A. This disorder responds well to treatment and, with follow-up, may not recur.'
- B. All types of schizophrenia are chronic relapsing disorders.'
- C. Outcomes are poor related to client prehospital disorganization.'
- D. The usual outcome is that only partial remission is achieved.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Paranoid schizophrenia is a subtype that tends to have a better prognosis compared to other types.
Step 2: The statement that the disorder responds well to treatment and may not recur aligns with the typical course of paranoid schizophrenia.
Step 3: With proper medication and therapy, individuals with paranoid schizophrenia can experience significant improvement and have periods of stability.
Step 4: Recurrence of symptoms is less likely compared to other types of schizophrenia.
Step 5: Therefore, choice A is correct as it provides accurate information about the prognosis of paranoid schizophrenia.
Summary: Choice B is incorrect because not all types of schizophrenia are chronic relapsing disorders. Choice C is incorrect as outcomes are not solely determined by prehospital disorganization. Choice D is incorrect as partial remission is not the usual outcome for paranoid schizophrenia.
The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), a first-generation antipsychotic drug, for a patient with schizophrenia who displays delusions, hallucinations, apathy, and social isolation. Which symptoms should most be monitored to evaluate the expected improvement from this medication?
- A. Talking to himself, belief that others will harm him
- B. Flat affect, avoidance of social activities, poor hygiene
- C. Loss of interest in recreational activities, alogia
- D. Impaired eye contact, needs help to complete tasks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the symptoms of delusions and hallucinations are key indicators of improvement in schizophrenia with antipsychotic treatment. These symptoms directly relate to the patient's perception of reality and are core features of the disorder. Monitoring these symptoms provides objective evidence of the medication's effectiveness in addressing the patient's psychotic symptoms.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they mainly indicate negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as flat affect, social withdrawal, and cognitive deficits. While monitoring these symptoms is important for assessing overall functioning and quality of life, they are not the primary target of improvement with antipsychotic medications. Symptoms like delusions and hallucinations are considered primary targets for evaluating the efficacy of antipsychotic treatment in schizophrenia.
Which of the following statements is true about the differences in mental health problems between children and adults?
- A. Children are affected by the same stressors as adults, but to different degrees and with different manifestations
- B. Childrens mental health disorders are generally much less severe and resolve more quickly than do those of adults
- C. Childrens mental health problems are different from those of adults because their brains are wired differently
- D. Children have better means of working off stresses than do adults
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mental health disorders in children have many similarities and differences from the same disorders in adults. The other responses are not correct.
A widow, aged 72 years, lives alone and is visited weekly by her son. She takes digoxin, hydrochlorothiazide, and an antihypertensive drug. She also has a prescription for diazepam (Valium) as needed for moderate to severe anxiety. When the son visited today, he found his mother confused and disoriented, with an unsteady gait. The nurse assessed the patient as having several cognitive problems, including memory and attention deficits and fluctuating levels of orientation. The nurse confirms that the patient's symptoms developed:
- A. Over the past few days.
- B. Over the past few weeks.
- C. Over the past few months.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the past few days. The sudden onset of confusion, disorientation, and cognitive deficits in the elderly patient suggests an acute change in her condition. This acute change is more indicative of a recent event or medication-related issue rather than a gradual decline over weeks or months. The sudden onset could be due to factors such as medication interactions, overdose, or underlying medical conditions. It is crucial to investigate recent changes in medications, lab results, or any other potential triggers that might have led to this acute cognitive decline. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they imply a gradual decline over weeks, months, or no specific timeframe, which does not align with the sudden onset observed in the patient.
A catatonic patient admitted in a stuporous condition begins to demonstrate increased motor activity. During his assessment, the psychiatrist raises the patient's arm above his head and releases it. The patient maintains the position his arm was placed in, immobile in that position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers his arm. What symptom is demonstrated by this assessment technique?
- A. Echopraxia
- B. Waxy flexibility
- C. Depersonalization
- D. Thought withdrawal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Waxy flexibility. This symptom is demonstrated by the patient's ability to maintain the position his arm was placed in, immobile, for an extended period of time. This is characteristic of catatonia, where individuals exhibit increased motor activity and abnormal posturing. Waxy flexibility refers to the tendency of catatonic patients to maintain positions that they are placed in by others, almost as if their limbs are made of wax and can be molded into different positions.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Echopraxia involves mimicking the movements of others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
C: Depersonalization refers to feeling detached from oneself, which is not evident in the patient's behavior during the assessment.
D: Thought withdrawal is a symptom of schizophrenia where thoughts are believed to be removed from one's mind by an external force, which is not relevant to the patient's motor behavior in this case.