Nokea
In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?
- A. Keep hand receipts up to date
- B. Establish requirements
- C. Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels
- D. Properly receive, inspect, and store required items
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish requirements. In the procurement process, the initial step involves determining and establishing the requirements for the supplies and equipment needed. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire procurement process by outlining the specific needs and specifications. Choice A, 'Keep hand receipts up to date,' is not the first step but rather a later administrative task. Choice C, 'Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels,' comes after establishing requirements. Choice D, 'Properly receive, inspect, and store required items,' is the final step in the procurement process, focusing on the physical receipt and handling of the procured items.
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A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?
- A. High-protein foods
- B. High-fiber foods
- C. High-vitamin K foods
- D. High-calcium foods
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.
For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.
A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Iron
- D. Zinc
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.
During a respiratory assessment, the nurse is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.
- A. Anxiety
- B. Exercise
- C. Smoking
- D. A, B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking primarily affects the health of the respiratory system in the long term but may not immediately impact the character of respirations. Therefore, choice C is incorrect. Choices A and B are correct as anxiety and exercise can lead to changes in the rate and depth of respirations.
The nurse teaches the mother of an infant how to care for her infant following repair of a cleft lip. It is MOST important for the nurse to include which of the following instructions?
- A. Feed the infant with a newborn nipple while holding him in the recumbent position
- B. Clean the suture site with a cotton-tipped swab soaked in Betadine
- C. Place the infant in the prone position after feeding
- D. Feed the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe and burp frequently
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeding the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe reduces the risk of injury to the surgical site and prevents aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because feeding an infant with a cleft lip using a newborn nipple while in the recumbent position can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as Betadine is not typically used on suture sites due to its cytotoxic effects. Choice C is incorrect because placing the infant in the prone position after feeding can also increase the risk of aspiration.