Nokea
In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
- C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
- D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.
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Which of the following medications is typically used to treat asthma?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Metformin
- C. Albuterol
- D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat asthma by relaxing the muscles around the airways, helping to relieve symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Aspirin (Choice A) is not typically used to treat asthma and can actually trigger asthma symptoms in some individuals. Metformin (Choice B) is a medication for managing type 2 diabetes and is not indicated for asthma treatment. Lisinopril (Choice D) is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor primarily used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, not asthma.
Which of the following lab results is most indicative of dehydration?
- A. Low sodium levels.
- B. Elevated creatinine levels.
- C. Low potassium levels.
- D. High blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated creatinine levels are indicative of dehydration because when the body is dehydrated, the kidneys concentrate urine to preserve fluid, leading to higher levels of creatinine. Low sodium levels (Choice A) can be seen in conditions like hyponatremia but are not specific to dehydration. Low potassium levels (Choice C) are more commonly associated with conditions like hypokalemia. High blood glucose levels (Choice D) are typically seen in diabetes and are not specific indicators of dehydration.
What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased pain.
- D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.
The client with chronic renal failure is receiving instruction on dietary restrictions. Which of the following food items should the client be instructed to avoid?
- A. Bananas.
- B. Apples.
- C. Rice.
- D. Potatoes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, and individuals with chronic renal failure are often advised to limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, rice, and potatoes are lower in potassium and can be included in moderation in the diet of clients with chronic renal failure.
When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake.
- B. Have small frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals.
- C. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods.
- D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake is the most appropriate diet instruction for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis. High-fiber foods help prevent constipation and promote bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications such as diverticulitis. Adequate fluid intake is crucial to soften stool and aid in digestion. Choice B, having small frequent meals and sitting up after meals, may be beneficial for some gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to diverticulosis. Choice C, eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods, is not necessary for diverticulosis management. Choice D, consuming a soft diet with increased milk and milk products, may worsen symptoms in diverticulosis due to the potential for increased gas production and bloating.