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In the elderly, administering medication is a great concern for the nurse since these patients are more prone to side effects. The primary cause of this is:
- A. Altered circulation and renal function
- B. Accelerated gastrointestinal system
- C. Enlarged Lymph nodes
- D. Musculoskeletal system weakness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The elderly are more likely to have side effects when there is altered metabolism through the kidneys and liver as well as altered circulatory function (A), unlike the other options (B, C, D) which are less relevant.
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Which service would be expected to provide resources 24 hours a day, 7 days a week if needed for persons with serious mental illness?
- A. Clubhouse model
- B. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
- C. Assertive Community Treatment (ACT)
- D. Cognitive Enhancement Therapy (CET)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) (C) offers 24/7 multidisciplinary support in the patient's environment, unlike the Clubhouse model (A), CBT (B), or CET (D), which lack such availability.
Which nursing action should occur first regarding a patient who has a problem of sexual dysfunction or sexual disorder? The nurse should
- A. develop an understanding of human sexual response.
- B. assess the patient's sexual functioning and needs.
- C. acquire knowledge of the patient's sexual roles.
- D. clarify own personal values about sexuality.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clarifying the nurse's own personal values about sexuality is crucial before addressing a patient's sexual dysfunction. By understanding personal biases or judgments, the nurse can provide unbiased care. Assessing the patient's needs (B) should follow, as it directly addresses the patient's concerns. Developing an understanding of human sexual response (A) is important, but not as urgent as addressing personal values. Acquiring knowledge of the patient's sexual roles (C) is less relevant and should come after understanding the patient's needs.
A nurse is caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
- A. Nutritional deficiency and dehydration.
- B. Respiratory failure and aspiration pneumonia.
- C. Peripheral edema and hyperkalemia.
- D. Mental confusion and decreased blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nutritional deficiency and dehydration. In bulimia nervosa, recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging can lead to electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, and malnutrition. Monitoring for nutritional deficiencies and dehydration is crucial in managing patients with bulimia nervosa.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
B: Respiratory failure and aspiration pneumonia - Although purging behaviors can increase the risk of aspiration pneumonia, it is not as common as nutritional deficiencies and dehydration in patients with bulimia nervosa.
C: Peripheral edema and hyperkalemia - These complications are not typically associated with bulimia nervosa.
D: Mental confusion and decreased blood pressure - While electrolyte imbalances can lead to mental confusion, these specific complications are not as common as nutritional deficiencies and dehydration in patients with bulimia nervosa.
The physician and advanced practice nurse are considering which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient with schizophrenia who demonstrates auditory hallucinations, apathy, anhedonia, and poor social functioning. The patient is overweight and has hypertension. Bearing these facts in mind, the drug the nurse should advocate would be:
- A. clozapine (Clozaril).
- B. haloperidol (Haldol).
- C. olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- D. aripiprazole (Abilify).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: aripiprazole (Abilify). Aripiprazole is a second-generation antipsychotic that is less likely to cause weight gain and metabolic side effects compared to other antipsychotics. This is important since the patient is already overweight and has hypertension. Aripiprazole also has a lower risk of causing sedation, which can be beneficial for addressing apathy and anhedonia without worsening social functioning.
A: Clozapine is effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but is associated with significant weight gain and metabolic side effects.
B: Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic with a high risk of extrapyramidal side effects and is not ideal for a patient with hypertension.
C: Olanzapine is known for causing significant weight gain and metabolic effects, making it a less suitable choice for an overweight patient with hypertension.
An advance directive gives legally binding direction for health care interventions when a patient:
- A. has a new diagnosis of cancer
- B. is diagnosed with Parkinsons disease
- C. is unable to make decisions for self because of illness
- D. diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is unable to speak
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Advance directives are invoked when patients are unable to make their own health care decisions. The correct response is the most global answer. A diagnosis of cancer or Parkinsons disease does not mean the patient is unable to make a decision. For a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, there are other ways to communicate beyond speaking.