Nokea
In the management process, the periodic checking of the results of action to make sure that it coincides with the goal of the institution is termed as:
- A. Planning
- B. Evaluating
- C. Directing
- D. Organizing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evaluating. Evaluating involves the periodic checking of results to ensure they align with the institution's goals. Planning (choice A) is about setting goals and determining the actions required to achieve them. Directing (choice C) involves overseeing and guiding the activities of individuals or teams to accomplish goals. Organizing (choice D) is about arranging resources and tasks to achieve objectives. In the context of the management process described, evaluating best fits the action of checking results against goals.
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Integrated management for childhood illness is the universal protocol of care endorsed by WHO and is used by different countries worldwide, including the Philippines. In any case that the nurse classifies the child and categorizes the signs and symptoms in the PINK category, you know that this means:
- A. Urgent referral
- B. Antibiotic Management
- C. Home treatment
- D. Outpatient treatment facility is needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a child is classified under the PINK category in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines, it signifies the need for antibiotic management. This category indicates severe signs and symptoms requiring immediate antibiotic treatment to address the underlying infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the PINK category specifically calls for urgent antibiotic management rather than urgent referral, home treatment, or outpatient treatment facility.
The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. The patient will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include:
- A. Narrowing of the pulse pressure
- B. Vomiting
- C. Periorbital edema
- D. A positive Kernig's sign
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Periorbital edema is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. It is caused by fluid accumulation around the eyes due to compromised drainage. Narrowing of the pulse pressure is more indicative of shock than increased intracranial pressure. While vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, it is not as specific as periorbital edema. A positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis, not increased intracranial pressure.
The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from the blood bank, it should be administered within:
- A. 1 hour
- B. 2 hours
- C. 4 hours
- D. 6 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blood transfusions need to be administered promptly after receiving the blood from the blood bank to ensure patient safety and effectiveness. Waiting too long can lead to complications such as bacterial growth in the blood product, which can be harmful when infused. Administering the blood within 6 hours is crucial to prevent such risks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because waiting for 1, 2, or 4 hours respectively can increase the likelihood of complications associated with delayed transfusion.
Nurse Joel and Ana are helping a 16-year-old Nursing Student in a case filed against the student for frustrated homicide. Nurse Joel and Ana are aware of the different circumstances of crimes. They are correct in identifying which of the following circumstances will be best applied in this case?
- A. Justifying
- B. Aggravating
- C. Mitigating
- D. Exempting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of frustrated homicide, the circumstance of 'justifying' is the most applicable. Justifying circumstances are those that exempt the individual from criminal liability because the act is considered morally right or justified under the circumstances. Aggravating circumstances would worsen the offense, mitigating circumstances would lessen the penalty, and exempting circumstances would completely excuse the individual from liability, none of which are suitable in a case of frustrated homicide.
The recommended treatment modality in clients with obsessive-compulsive disorder is:
- A. Psychotherapy
- B. Behavior therapy
- C. Aversion therapy
- D. Psychoanalysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recommended treatment modality for clients with obsessive-compulsive disorder is Behavior Therapy, not Psychoanalysis. Behavior therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is considered the first-line treatment for OCD. This therapy focuses on changing the patterns of behavior that contribute to the disorder. Psychotherapy, although beneficial in some cases, is not as effective as behavior therapy for OCD. Aversion therapy involves associating a stimulus with a negative outcome to reduce the frequency of a specific behavior, which is not the primary approach for OCD.