Nokea
In the nursing diagnosis 'Disturbed Self-Esteem related to presence of large scar over left side of face,' what part of the nursing diagnosis is 'presence of large scar over left side of face'?
- A. Etiology
- B. Problem
- C. Defining characteristics
- D. Client need
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Etiology. Etiology in a nursing diagnosis refers to the cause or contributing factors of the identified problem. In this case, the large scar over the left side of the face is the reason for the disturbed self-esteem. It is the underlying factor that is leading to the self-esteem issue. The problem itself is the disturbed self-esteem, the defining characteristics are the signs and symptoms that support the diagnosis, and client need is the desired outcome or goal for the client. In summary, the presence of the large scar is the cause or etiology of the disturbed self-esteem, making it the correct choice.
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What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50.
2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland.
3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment.
4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer.
5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer.
6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:
- A. Hypotonic solutions used primarily to increase osmotic pressure of blood plasma
- B. Hypertonic solutions used primarily for hydration when hemoconcentration is present
- C. Alkalizing solutions used to treat metabolic acidosis thus reducing cellular sweating
- D. Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance.
Rationale:
1. Hyperalimentation solutions are designed to provide essential nutrients intravenously.
2. Hyperosmolar solutions have a higher osmolarity compared to body fluids, providing concentrated nutrition.
3. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes, requiring additional protein intake.
4. Hyperosmolar solutions can provide adequate protein and nutrients to reverse negative nitrogen balance.
Summary:
A: Hypotonic solutions do not increase osmotic pressure, but rather decrease it.
B: Hypertonic solutions are not primarily used for hydration in this context.
C: Alkalizing solutions are not the primary purpose of hyperalimentation and do not directly address cellular sweating.
The patient is being discharged on furosemide (Lasix). The nurse evaluates the patient as understanding her medication teaching if she states that she will have which of the ff. laboratory tests monitored as ordered?
- A. “I will have my urine sodium checked.”
- B. “I will have my prothrombin time checked.”
- C. “I will have my calcium level checked.”
- D. “I will have my potassium level checked.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will have my potassium level checked." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias.
A: Monitoring urine sodium is not typically necessary for furosemide therapy.
B: Prothrombin time monitoring is unrelated to furosemide therapy.
C: Monitoring calcium levels is not directly affected by furosemide use.
In summary, monitoring potassium levels is essential due to the potential for hypokalemia with furosemide, while the other options are not directly relevant to this medication.
At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?
- A. Malignant melanoma
- B. Basal cell epithelioma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the most dangerous form, while basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. Sun exposure can lead to DNA damage in skin cells, increasing the risk of developing these types of cancers. Therefore, all three choices are correct as they are all linked to sun exposure. The other choices are incorrect because each type of skin cancer mentioned can be caused by prolonged sun exposure, so selecting any one of them individually would not fully capture the scope of the risks associated with sun exposure.
A patient reports on admission being “very sick” after taking erythromycin in the past. The patient is to receive erythromycin now. Which of the following actions should the nurse take regarding giving the antibiotic?
- A. Give the antibiotic
- B. Do not give the antibiotic
- C. Give half of the dose
- D. Discontinue the antibiotic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not give the antibiotic. This is because the patient has a history of being "very sick" after taking erythromycin in the past, indicating a potential allergic reaction or severe adverse effects. The nurse should not administer the antibiotic to prevent harm to the patient. Choice A is incorrect as it can lead to a repeat adverse reaction. Choice C, giving half the dose, still exposes the patient to potential harm. Choice D, discontinuing the antibiotic, is also incorrect as it implies the patient has already started the medication, which should not be the case given the history of adverse effects.